Health Education: DHA Exam MCQs

DHA Prometric Exam MCQs

for Medical Laboratory Technician/Technologist

About DHA Exam
Dubai Health Authority (DHA) is an assessing body to supervise the health care department in Dubai, UAE. The Health Regulation Department (HRD) in DHA is exclusively liable for licensing the qualified professionals with proper skills to make certain the quality of healthcare services and safety of inhabitants in Dubai.

DHA Exam is a Licensing exam given to all medicos who are interested to work in Dubai. Before applying for the exam you have to complete some procedures for your document verification named as Credential. After getting your eligibility ID you can go for Exam or Data Flow, or both at the same time.

Tips When Taking the Practice Exam:

When taking the practice exam, you should answer all the questions. There will be multiple choices, which provide challenging questions and only one is considered as the correct answer.

If you missed or failed to answer a question, you have to take note of it or write it down. Check your notes and textbooks immediately and look for the right answers to the questions and study them again. You can take the practice exam once again and try to answer everything. When you get everything correct on the practice exam, then you will definitely pass and get a good score on the actual Prometric Exam.

Our practice tests simulate the real thing in a number of key ways:

1. Topics covered

· General Laboratory

· Chemistry

· Hematology

· Immunology/Immunohematology

· Microbiology

· Urinalysis

2. Level of difficulty

3. Timed exam, proportional to the number of questions (or untimed if you prefer)

4. Navigation

5. The feel of the real test

MCQs 207 and Question-answer 71

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Instruction: Select one best answer for the following multiple-choice Questions:

1. Which of the following is a confirmatory test for syphilis:

a. RPR

b. FTA-ABS

c. VDRL

d. Wasserman test

Feedback

The FTA-ABS is not intended for use as a screening test. It should only be used to differentiate between true positives, false positives, and in late or latent syphilis.

2. The most likely cause of an elevated potassium level in an apparently normal individual is:

a. Contamination

b. Hemolysis

c. Acute renal failure

d. Interfering substances

Feedback

Hemolysis could result from improper specimen collection technique, or improper storage.

3. Metabolic acidosis is characterized by:

a. Increased pCO2

b. Hypoventilation

c. Low pH

d. High pH

Feedback

Metabolic acidosis is the result of either: 1) accumulation of abnormal levels of organic acids, often secondary to diabetic ketoacidosis, or lactic acidosis, 2) excessive loss of bicarbonate as in severe diarrhea, or 3) reduced excretion of acids as in renal failure. All these conditions result in a decrease in pH. The body compensates by hyperventilating, and lowering pCO2, in an attempt to restore normal pH, resulting in a compensated or partially compensated metabolic acidosis.

4. The Quellung test is useful for which of the following:

a. Differentiate between Staphylococcus and Streptococcus

b. Serological typing of Streptococcus pneumonia

c. Isolation of various strains of Staphylococcus

d. Isolation of various strains of Streptococcus

Feedback

Capsular swelling results from the addition of specific capsular antibody to an isolate of the organism. This test is generally not required for routine diagnosis.

5. The relative centrifugal force of a centrifuge may be affected by all except the following:

a. Time

b. Radius of head

c. RPM

d. All

Feedback
The amount of time a sample is spun does not affect the relative centrifugal force.

6. Standard precautions means that:

a. Known infectious patients must be handled with extraordinary care

b. Mask, gloves and gowns should be worn in all hospital patient's rooms

c. All specimens must be handled as if they are hazardous and infectious

d. Always wash your hands before drawing a patient’s blood sample

7. RDW is an indication of which of the following:

a. Variability of RBC volume

b. Poikilocytosis

c. Macrocytosis

d. Microcytosis

Feedback

Red Cell Distribution Width (RDW) is a mathematical expression of size variation used to quantify anisocytosis. The higher the RDW, the greater the anisocytosis. RDW is increased in iron deficiency, and tends to be normal in thalassemia. Increased RDW may be an early indication of iron deficiency, where it may precede the onset of microcytosis.

8. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci are best characterized by which of the following:

a. Positive cAMP test

b. Optochin sensitivity

c. Bile esculin-hydrolysis

d. Bacitracin sensitivity

Feedback
Group B streptococci are characterized by a positive cAMP test. Streptococcus pneumoniae is characterized by Optochin susceptibility Enterococci are positive by the bile-esculin test

9. The turbidity of the bacterial inoculum of a standard disc diffusion (Kirby-Bauer) susceptibility test is:

a. 0.1 McFarland Standard

b. 0.5 McFarland Standard

c. 1.0 McFarland Standard

d. 2.0 McFarland Standard

10. Which of the following is not a common support medium used in electrophoresis techniques:

a. Cellulose acetate

b. Agarose gel

c. Polyacrylamide gel

d. Dextrose

Feedback

Cellulose acetate and agarose gels are most commonly used in the clinical laboratory

11. The normal range for urine pH is:

a. 4.6 to 8.0

b. 5.0 to 6.0

c. 7.0 to 8.0

d. none of the above

12. Which of the following is not a likely cause of an abnormal thrombin time (TT):

a. Fibrin split products

b. Heparin

c. Aspirin

d. Dysfibrinogenemia

Feedback

The thrombin time is performed by adding thrombin to citrated plasma. It is prolonged by heparin, a deficiency or abnormality of fibrinogen and the presence of fibrin split products. Aspirin affects primarily platelet function.

13. What is the eight hour occupational exposure limit for a chemical called?

a. Threshold limit value

b. Threshold time limit

c. Time limit value

d. Short term limit

14. Spherocytes are associated with which two of the following conditions:

a. Hereditary spherocytosis

b. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

c. Thalassemia

d. Iron deficiency

Feedback

Spherocytes result from removal of small amounts of erythrocyte membrane, with resultant reduction in surface to volume ratio. This may occur in the reticuloendothelial system, as in hereditary sherocytosis and autoimmune hemolytic anemia, or may be due to direct injury of red cells, as in patients with severe burns.

15. The generally accepted age range for homologous blood donation is:

a. 21 – 65 years

b. 17 – 65 years

c. 15 – 65 years

d. Over the age of 14 years

Feedback

Prospective donors over 65 may be accepted at the discretion of the blood bank physician. Many donor centers safely involve elderly donors in their collection programs.

16. Which of the following organisms in most frequently associated with endocarditis:

a. Viruses

b. Neisseria

c. Staphylococci

d. Streptococci

Feedback

Various Streptococci are the most common causes of endocarditis, although many other organisms have been implicated.

17. Ionized calcium is most commonly measured using which of the following method:

a. Flame photometry

b. Color complex formation between calcium and o-cresolphthalein

c. Atomic absorption

d. Calcium ion selective electrodes

18. Match the clotting factor with its commonly associated name:

a. Factor II Prothrombin

b. Factor I Fibrinogen

c. Factor V Proaccelerin

19. The prozone effect ( when performing a screening titer) is most likely to result in:

a. False positive

b. False negative

c. No reaction at all

d. Mixed field reaction

Feedback

Prozone effect (due to antibody excess) will result in an initial false negative in spite of the large amount of antibody in the serum, followed by a positive result as the specimen is diluted.

20. Which of the following tests on amniotic fluid would be included when assessing fetal maturity:

a. Alpha fetoprotein and bilirubin

b. Alpha fetoprotein and L/S ratio

c. L/S ratio and bilirubin

d. Creatinine and L/S ratio

21. Therapeutic hemapheresis may be used to treat all of the following except:

a. Acute Guillain-Barre syndrome

b. Paraproteinemia

c. HIV infections

d. Cryoglobulinemia

Feedback

Therapeutic Hemapheresis is the process of removing a harmful blood component, and returned the remaining blood components to the patient. The examples sited above are indications for plasmapheresis, in which plasma containing a harmful substance is removed from the body, and replaced with FFP or other volume expanders, depending on the patient's condition.

22. A smear that is prepared from equal parts of methylene blue and whole blood will be used for:

a. WBC differential

b. Platelet estimates, RBC count

c. Reticulocyte count

d. None of the above

Feedback

Remaining nuclear fragments found in reticulocytes take up the methylene blue dye.

23. Gram positive organisms

a. resist acetone-alcohol de colorization

b. are always decolorized by acetone-alcohol

c. resist staining by crystal violet

d. readily stain with safranin in the Gram stain

Feedback

Gram positive organisms resist decolorization with acetone-alcohol. Gram negative organisms are decolorized, and subsequently stain with safranin.

24. Which of the following are not appropriate indications for the use of fresh frozen plasma:

a. Volume expansion

b. Severe bleeding in the presence of significantly elevated PT secondary to vitamin K deficiency

c. Replacement component after plasma exchange in patients with TTP or HUS

d. Dilutional coagulopathy with significant active bleeding, and PT and PTT twice normal

Feedback

Since each unit of fresh frozen plasma (FFP) carries with it the risk of transmitting blood borne pathogens, and other products which do not carry this risk are available, FFP should not be used as a volume expander.

25. If a pipette is labeled (TC) " to contain " you would do the following:

a. Drain pipette, but not blow out

b. Drain contents then blow out or rinse

c. Drain to last mark on pipette

d. Do not consider the meniscus when filling

Feedback

"TC" means the total volume contained in the pipette - you must blow out to remove total contents.

26. The concentration of sodium chloride in an isotonic solution is :

a. 8.5 %

b. 0.85 %

c. 0.08 %

d. 1 molar

Feedback

Isotonic or normal saline is a 0.85 % solution of sodium chloride in water.

27. The positive square root of the variance of a set of values is called:

a. Median value

b. Mean value

c. Standard deviation

d. Coefficient of variation

28. Patients with antibody to the following antigen are immune to Hepatitis B:

a. Core antigen

b. Surface antigen

c. e antigen

d. Delta antigen

29. Which one of the following is not a true statement about Chlamydia:

a. Requires tissue culture for growth

b. Is a true bacterium

c. Is an obligate intracellular parasite

d. Has the nuclear structure of a virus

30. Which of the following species are gram positive:

a. Streptococcus

b. Neisseria

c. Listeria

d. Lactobacillus

31. Which of the following media is commonly used when performing the Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion

a. Chocolate agar

b. Mueller-Hinton agar

c. Thayer-Martin agar

d. MacConkey agar

32. Which of the following best defines "sensitivity":

a. The percentage of patients with a disease who will have a positive test

b. The percentage of patients without a disease who will have a negative test

c. The percentage of patients with a disease who will have a negative test

d. The percentage of patients without a disease who will have a positive test

Feedback

Sensitivity refers to the percentage or fraction of patients with a given disease in a given population who will have a positive test.

33. What percentage solution of sodium hypochlorite (bleach) is recommended as a routine laboratory disinfectant:

a. 5%

b. 10%

c. 15%

d. 20%

34. In HDN which of the following antigen-antibody reactions is occurring:

a. Maternal antibody against fetal antibody

b. Maternal antigen against fetal antibody

c. Maternal antibody against fetal antigen

d. Maternal antigen against fetal antigen

35. Carbon dioxide is predominately found in blood in the form of:

a. Bound CO2

b. Bicarbonate ions

c. Sodium carbonate

d. Pco2

36. What condition is indicated by the following blood gas results: Bicarbonate = 32 mmol/L (Normal = 22 - 26 mmol/L); pCO2 = 65 mm Hg (Normal = 35 - 45 mmHg); pH = 7.28 (normal = 7.35 - 7.45)

a. Healthy condition

b. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis

c. Compensated metabolic acidosis

d. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

Feedback

The normal pH of blood is 7.40. In order for most metabolic processes to take place, the pH must remain within a narrow range close to this value. The range is usually defined in adults as 7.35-7.45. If blood pH falls below 7.35, the blood becomes too acidic (acidosis). If blood rises above 7.45, the blood is too alkaline (alkalosis).

As blood pH decreases, the kidneys will retain bicarbonate (HCO₃^-) from the glomerular filtrate; therefore, bicarbonate is increased. However, in this case, the increased HCO₃^- could not compensate for the markedly elevated pCO₂(the respiratory component) and the condition that results is uncompensated respiratory acidosis.

37. In a normal CSF the protein concentration as compared to that in the serum is generally:

a. Less than 50%

b. Less than 30%

c. Less than 10%

d. Less than 1%

Feedback

Normal ratio of serum to CSF Protein is about 200 to 1, or less than 1%. Elevation of CSF total protein is a nonspecific finding, but usually indicates some type of disease involving the brain or meninges.

38. Match the type of hepatitis with its route of transmission

a. Fecal and Oral _ Hepatitis A

b. Parenteral _ Hepatitis B

c. Parenteral _ Hepatitis C

Feedback

Hepatitis A is spread through the fecal-oral route. Hepatitis B is most commonly spread through parenteral means, but nonparenteral routes such as transmission through pregnancy, sexual contact, and exposure to infected body fluids are also important. Hepatitis C is spread through parenteral routes; pregnancy, sexual contact, and in households is possible, but much less likely than with hepatitis B.

39. Which of the following staining methods would you use to demonstrate the metachromatic granules of Corynebacterium diphtheriae:

a. Acid fast

b. Gram

c. Trichrome

d. Methylene blue

Feedback

Methylene blue stain can be used to visualize the metachromatic granules that are characteristic of C. diphtheriae.

40. Which of the following are not considered normal flora of the gastrointestinal tract:

a. Lactobacillus

b. Clostridium

c. Peptostreptococcus

d. Shigella

Feedback

Shigella and Salmonella are not found as normal flora in the gastrointestinal tract.

41. All of the following cellular antigens are important to an immunohematologist except:

a. Blood group antigens

b. Histocompatibility antigens

c. Haptens

d. Autoantigens

Feedback

A hapten is an incomplete antigen.

42. Which one of the following statements about anti-A₁ is false:

a. Anti-A₁ is a naturally occurring antibody that is usually clinically insignificant

b. Anti-A₁ reactive at 37^o C can sometimes destroy transfused A₁ positive cells

c. A₁ and A₂ occur in 80 and 20 percent of the population, respectively

d. A₂ cells react with Dolichos biflorus lectin

Feedback

Dolichos biflorus lectin has anti-A₁ specificity.

43. Which one of the following organisms do not usually stain with an acid-fast stain, or one of its variants:

a. Mycobacterium

b. Cryptosporidium

c. Actinomyces israelii

d. Nocardia

44. Which of the following would be the most appropriate temperature for long term storage of viral cultures:

a. 4° C

b. -20° C

c. -70° C

d. Room temperature

Feedback

Cultures can be stored at either -20° or -70°, but -70° is preferred for long term storage.

45. Which of the following would be the most appropriate method to confirm a positive protein from a urine dipstick:

a. Immuno electropheresis

b. Heat precipitation

c. Sulfosalicylic acid precipitation

d. Protein electrophoresis

46. Circulating organic iodine is found primarily in the form of:

a. Triiodothyronine

b. Parathyroid hormone

c. Thyroglobulin

d. Thyroxine

Feedback

Iodine circulates as thyroxine (T4) and to and to a lesser extent as Triiodothyronine (T3).

47. Which of the following conditions would be suggested by a marked rise in alkaline phosphatase, jaundice, and a moderate rise in ALT:

a. Cardiovascular disease

b. Hemolytic anemia

c. Post-hepatic obstruction

d. Renal failure

Feedback

Post-hepatic obstruction is characterized by a marked increase in conjugated bilirubin.

48. Which of the following organisms is the most common cause of acute cystitis:

a. Escherichia coli

b. Klebsiella pneumoniae

c. Chlamydia trachomatis

d. Staphylococcus epidermidis

49. A fluorometer operates on which of the following principles:

a. Measures amount of light absorbed by a given compound

b. Measures changes in emitted wavelength of light after absorption by an analyte

c. Measures amount of light scattered by the analyte in question

d. Measures light emitted at two or more wavelengths

50. Which of the following statement about synovial fluid is true:

a. Markedly elevated neutrophils always correspond to bacterial joint infection

b. Patients with gout involving joints will have markedly elevated neutrophils in their synovial fluid

c. Fungal joint infections have synovial fluid with numerous lymphocytes

d. Tuberculous joint infections have synovial fluid with numerous plasma cells

51. Rheumatoid factor reacts with which the following :

a. Fc fragment of IgM

b. Fab fragment of IgM

c. Fab fragment of IgG

d. Fc fragment of IgG

52. Gamma irradiation of cellular blood components is required in which of the following situations:

a. Prevent post-transfusion purpura

b. Prevent Graft-Versus-Host (GVH) disease

c. Sterile components

d. Prevent non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema

Feedback

Transfusion related Graft-Versus-Host disease is a rare condition usually following transfusion of patients whose immune system is severely compromised. It occurs when T lymphocytes present in the transfused unit replicate and attack the tissues of the recipient. Gamma irradiation prevents this condition by inactivating T lymphocytes in the donor unit. Gamma irradiation of cellular blood components is required when: 1.The donor is a blood relative of the recipient, 2. intrauterine transfusions, 3. The recipient has a selected immunodeficiency condition, 4. The recipient has received a bone marrow transplant.

53. Patients with which of the following conditions would benefit most from washed red cells:

a. Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia

b. Cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia

c. Elevated serum potassium

d. Multiple red cell alloantibodies

Feedback

Washing not only reduces the number of leukocytes and platelets that are often responsible for febrile reactions, but also eliminates anticoagulants, ammonia, lactic acid, and potassium.

54. Cryoglobulin testing can be used to:

a. Screen for rheumatoid arthritis

b. Diagnose syphilis

c. Screen for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

d. Help diagnose Raynaud's syndrome

Feedback
Cryoglobulin is an abnormal serum protein with a unique ability to precipitate when exposed to cold temperatures. Cryoglobulin is present in Raynaud's syndrome.

55. Which is arranged from least mature to most mature:

a. Myeloblast, Myelocyte, Band, Neutrophil, Metamyelocyte, Promyelocyte, Stem Cell

b. Stem Cell, Myeloblast, Promyelocyte, Myelocyte, Metamyelocyte, Band, Neutrophil

c. Stem Cell, Promyelocyte, Metamyelocyte, Neutrophil, Myeloblast, Myelocyte, Band

d. Neutrophil, Band, Metamyelocyte, Myelocyte, Promyelocyte, Myeloblast, Stem Cell

56. The measurement of total glycosylated hemoglobin A1c is an effective means of assessing the average blood glucose levels:

a. Over the past 1-2 weeks

b. Over the past 2-3 months

c. Only the past 24 hours

d. Only the past 28 hours

Feedback

The concentration of hemoglobin A1c is directly proportional to the average plasma glucose level that the RBCs are exposed to during their 120 day life span. The glycosylated hemoglobins result from glycosylation of serine, asparagine, and hydroxylysine residues in hemoglobin. There are three glycosylated hemoglobins: Hb A1a, Hb A1b, and Hb A1c, of which Hb A1c constitutes 80%. Most methods measure total glycosylated hemoglobin, which has a high degree of correlation to Hb A1c, and may be reported as such after making the appropriate conversion.

57. Bacitracin susceptibility is useful for which two of the following:

a. Distinguishing Staphylococci from micrococci

b. Presumptive identification of Group A streptococci

c. Identification of Haemophilus

d. Identification of Neisseria

Feedback

Staphylococci are resistant to bacitracin while micrococcus are sensitive. Group A

beta-hemolytic.Streptococci are sensitive to bacitracin, while most other Groups are resistant.

58. Which of the following is the proper temperature to use when crossmatching in the presence of a cold antibody:

a. 37 degrees Celsius

b. 25 degrees Celsius

c. 15 degrees Celsius

d. 4 degrees Celsius

Feedback

Most antibodies that are inactive at 37 degrees Celsius, and active only below 37 degrees Celsius (i.e. cold reactive antibodies), are of little clinical significance.

59. Match the virus with its disease:

a. Hepadnavirus Hepatitis

b. Arbovirus Encephalitis

c. Parvovirus Fifth disease

d. Paramyxovirus Measles-Mumps

60. When a urine specimen cannot be cultured immediately it may be:

a. Stored at room temperature for up to 8 hours

b. Stored in freezer for up to 24 hours

c. Neisseria

d. Stored at 4° C for up to 24 hours

61. Platelet should be stored at what temperature:

a. 1-6 degrees Celsius

b. 10-16 degrees Celsius

c. 20-24 degrees Celsius

d. 34-37 degrees Celsius

Feedback

Platelets should be stored at 20-24 degrees Celsius with continuous gentle agitation. They should be infused within 4 hours after the seal on a platelet unit is broken.

62. The recommended temperature/time/pressure for routine steam sterilization of media is:

a. 121° C for 8-10 minutes @ 10 psi

b. 121° C for 12-15 minutes @ 15 psi

c. 220° C for 8-10 minutes @ 10 psi

d. 220° C for 12-15 minutes @ 15 psi

63. Which of the following casts might be found in the urine of a healthy individual after strenuous exercise:

a. Epithelial cell casts

b. Hyaline casts

c. Granular casts

d. Waxy casts

Feedback

Hyaline casts may be seen in healthy individuals particularly after exercise.

64. If a laboratory 's control range (using a 99.7 confidence interval) for a given assay is 20.0 to 50.0, what would its means and one standard deviation be:

a. Mean = 35.0 SD = 15.0

b. Mean = 35.0 SD = 10.0

c. Mean = 40.0 SD = 7.5

d. Mean = 35.0 SD = 5.0

Feedback

The mean would be halfway between 20 and 50, or 35. The range for the assay is within 15 units of the mean, representing 3 SD (equal to 99.7% confidence interval). Therefore, 1 SD = 15/3 or 5.

65. If a potential donor has been transfused blood products, he must be deferred from blood donation for:

a. 1 month

b. 3 months

c. 6 months

d. 1 year

66. An urticarial reaction is characterized by:

a. Rapid rise in temperature

b. Difficulty breathing

c. Rash and hives

d. Blood in the urine

Feedback

Urticarial transfusion reactions occur in up to 1% of transfusions. They are manifested by hives, rash, and itching. The transfusion may be resumed after successful administration of antihistamines.

67. Which of the following cells when found upon microscopic examination of the urine would be most indicative of kidney disease:

a. WBCs and bacteria

b. Tubular epithelial cells

c. Squamous epithelial cells

d. RBCs

Feedback

Squamous epithelial cells are usually vaginal contaminants.

68. Which of the following statistical methods would be employed to determine how closely two different methods compare with each other:

a. Linear regression

b. Standard deviation

c. Coefficient of variation

d. Percent difference of means

Feedback

Linear regression can be used to compare one method with another.

69. Elevation in CSF total protein may be seen in all of the following conditions except:

a. Brain tumors

b. Bacterial meningitis

c. Parkinson's disease

d. CVA

70. Which one of the following is not a system for incubation of anaerobic bacteria:

a. Candle jar

b. Glove box anaerobic chamber

c. Anaerobic jar - gaspak

d. Anaerobic jar - evacuation replacement

71. Aplastic anemia may be caused by all of the following except:

a. Infections

b. Chemical agent

c. Enzyme deficiencies

d. Ionizing radiation

Feedback
Enzyme deficiencies are usually associated with hemolytic anemias.

72. Which of the following types of whole blood would be the least satisfactory to transfuse to a type AB patient:

a. Group O

b. Group A

c. Group B

d. Group AB

Feedback
Group O whole blood contains both anti-A and anti-B which could react with the recipient's RBCs.

73. Bence-Jones proteinuria is associated with all of the following conditions except:

a. Macroglobulinemia

b. Pernicious anemia

c. Multiple myeloma

d. Amyloidosis

Feedback
Macroglobulinemia, Multiple Myeloma, and Amyloidosis are all associated with abnormal protein production and/or accumulation which can result in Bence-Jones proteins being excreted in the urine.

74. The slide coagulase test is a rapid method for identifying which of the following organisms.

a. Staphylococcus hominis

b. Staphylococcus pneumoniae

c. Staphylococcus aureus

d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Feedback

Since not all isolates of S. aureus are detected by the slide coagulase test, suspicious organisms negative by the slide test must be confirmed by the tube coagulase test.

75. Which of the following streptococcus exhibits a positive bile solubility test:

a. S. pyogenes

b. S. pneumoniae

c. S. agalactiae

d. S. mutans

Feedback
Streptococcus pneumoniae colonies dissolve with the addition of sodium deoxycholate (positive bile sensitivity test) and are sensitive to Optochin- unlike other species of Streptococci.

76. Which of the following red blood cells contain the most H antigen:

a. Group A cells

b. Group B cells

c. Group O cells

d. Bombay phenotype

Feedback
O cells contain only H antigen, while cells of the other ABO groups contain varying amount of H antigen in addition to their group specific antigen(s). The classic Bombay phenotype is characterized by the absence of A, B, and H antigens.

77. A zinc deficiency in the elderly is often caused by:

a. Decreased intake and absorption

b. Decreased intake and excretion

c. Increased intake and excretion

d. Increased excretion and decreased absorption

78. Match the illustrations with the corresponding description of colony edges:

a. Irregular A

b. Entire B

c. Crenated C

79. ABO blood groups were discovered by:

a. Mendelson

b. Morgan

c. Wiener

d. Landsteiner

Feedback
Landsteiner first identified the presence of the separate red cell antigens A and B in the early 1900's.

80. Which of the following parasites is not commonly found in the peripheral blood:

a. Loa loa

b. Brugia malayi

c. Dipetalonema perstans

d. Onchocerca volvulus

Feedback
The microfiliariae of Onchocerca do not generally circulate in the peripheral blood. The diagnosis is made by demonstrating the microfilariae in teased skin snips.

81. If an Rh negative patient is administered a unit of R¹R¹ packed red cells, which one of the following antibodies would be most likely to develop:

a. Anti-c, Anti-E

b. Anti-D

c. Anti-e

d. All

Feedback
R¹R¹ (DCe/DCe) cells are positive for the D antigen, which is the most immunogenic antigen of the Rh system, followed by c and E.

82. A decrease in which of the following in AIDS patients results in increased susceptibility to infection:

a. CD 4+ cells

b. CD 8+ cells

c. HIV antibodies

d. HIV antigens

Feedback
It is the CD 4+ cells that help aid our immune system in attacking foreign antigens by initiating the body's response. CD 8+ also helps in the role of immunity by attaching to infected cells to initiate cell destruction. A decrease in HIV antibodies would not leave the host more susceptible to infection since the antibody is directed at the HIV virus only. Finally, a decrease in HIV antigens will also not cause a host to become more susceptible to infections.

83. The primary site of reabsorption of glomerular filtrate is the:

a. Loop of Henle

b. Proximal convoluted tubule

c. Distal convoluted tubule

d. Collecting duct

84. Which of these is arranged from least mature to most mature:

a. Lymphoblast, Lymphocyte, Prolymphocyte, Stem Cell

b. Stem Cell, Lymphoblast, Prolymphocyte, Lymphocyte

c. Stem Cell, Lymphoblast, Lymphocyte, Prolymphocyte

d. Lymphocyte, Prolymphocyte, Lympoblast, Stem Cell

85. MCV is calculated using which of the following parameters:

a. Hgb and RBC

b. RBC histogram

c. RBC and Hct

d. RBC and MCHC

Feedback
MCV = Hematocrit X 1000/RBC (in millions per microliter). The MCV is expressed in femtoliters (cubic micrometers, 10-15 liters).

86. Which of the following would not be considered a normal part of a routine electrolyte panel:

a. Sodium

b. Potassium

c. Magnesium

d. Chloride

Feedback
A routine electrolyte panel typically consists of sodium, potassium, chloride, bicarbonate, creatinine, glucose, and BUN.

87. Which of the following conditions is associated with elevated serum uric acid levels:

a. Cushing's syndrome

b. Pancreatitis

c. Hyperthyroidism

d. Gout

Feedback
Gout is a disease manifested by the deposition of crystalline uric acid in joints and soft tissues, with secondary inflammation and pain.

88. Which of the following additives should be used for the collection of a sample for blood gas analysis:

a. Sodium citrate

b. EDTA

c. Sodium oxalate

d. Heparin

89. What is the site used most frequently in the adult patient when performing a bone marrow biopsy:

a. Vertebrae

b. Sternum

c. Clavicle

d. Iliac crest

Feedback
Bone marrow specimens are usually obtained in adults from the posterior iliac crest. They may also be obtained from the sternum.

90. The precursor of the platelet which is commonly only found in the bone marrow is:

a. Myeloblast

b. Metakarocyte

c. Megakaryocyte

d. Erythroblast

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Platelets are formed by the fragmentation of megakaryocyte cytoplasm.

91. Which of the following set of conditions would preclude HDN as a result of Rh incompatibility:

a. Mother Rh-negative, father Rh-positive

b. Mother Rh-negative, baby Rh-positive

c. Mother Rh-negative, father Rh-negative

d. Mother Rh unknown, baby Rh-positive

Feedback
If both parents are Rh negative, the baby would also be Rh negative.

92. Erythropoietin is produced in:

a. Bone marrow

b. Liver

c. Lymphocytes

d. Kidneys

Feedback
Erythropoietin, which is produced in the kidneys, stimulates the production of red blood cells.

93. The Rh nomenclature which uses the letters DCE is found in which of the following genetic models:

a. Landsteiner

b. Wiener

c. Fisher –Race

d. Rhesus

Feedback
Fisher and Race first proposed the existence of the three closely linked genes, and used the DCE terminology to describe their theory.

94. Which of the following organisms is an obligate intracellular parasite:

a. Proteus

b. Escherichia

c. Klebsiella

d. Rickettsiae

95. An average adult would excrete approximately what volume of urine per 24 hours:

a. 3000 ml

b. 1500 ml

c. 750 ml

d. 250 ml

Feedback
Normal adult urine volume is 800 to 1800 ml/24 hours for males, and 600 to 1600 ml/24 hours for females.

96. What minimum level of specific resistance (megohms@25^o C) is required for a Type I water system:

a. 10.0

b. 5.0

c. 2.0

d. 0.1

Feedback
Specific resistance is the resistance in Ohms of a 1 cm long by 1 cm² cross sectional column of solution. Type I water is the purest, and therefore has the highest resistance. Type II water is used for most routine laboratory determinations, and must have a specific resistance of at least 2.0. Type III water is the least pure; it must have a specific resistance of at least 0.1.

97. Which of the following group B antigens is generally associated with a mixed field reaction:

a. B

b. B₃

c. Bm

d. Bx

Feedback
B₃ is characterized by a weaker than usual reaction with anti-B and by a mixed field reaction with the same reagent.

98. The most common rapid slide test (MONOSPOTâ) for infectious mononucleosis employs:

a. Horse erythrocytes

b. Sheep erythrocytes

c. Intact beef erythrocytes

d. None of the above

Feedback
A positive spot test shows agglutination of horse erythrocytes when added to patient serum previously absorbed with guinea pig kidney, but not when added to patient serum previously absorbed with beef erythrocyte stroma. The test is generally simple, sensitive, and specific, but false negative are common in young children with mononucleosis.

99. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is associated with all of the following clinical conditions except:

a. Septicemia

b. Obstetric emergencies

c. Intravascular hemolysis

d. Thrombocytosis

Feedback
Platelet counts are decreased or normal during DIC.

100. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be associated with gas gangrene:

a. Clostridia histolyticum

b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

c. Clostridium perfringens

d. Escherichia coli

101. Which of the following would most likely occur as the result of hemodilution:

a. Low serum electrolytes

b. High serum electrolytes

c. Increased anion gap

d. Electrolyte concentrations would remain the same

Feedback
A dilutional effect caused by the sample being hemodiluted, would not cause high serum electrolytes since they have been diluted out. The anion gap could remain the same or become decreased. Finally, the electrolyte concentrations could not remain the same, since there will be a smaller amount in the sample to test due to the diluent.

102. Following a myocardial infarction which of the following enzymes will be the first to become elevated:

a. CK

b. LDH

c. GGT

d. AST

Feedback
GGT is elevated in liver disorders. CK rises before LDH. However myoglobin is the earliest serum cardiac marker to rise after an infarction; it may be positive within two hours post MI. It is not cardiac specific, and can be elevated in skeletal muscle trauma or rhabdomyolysis.

103. India Ink is used to:

a. Visualize flagella

b. Visualize shape

c. Visualize capsule

d. Visualize cytoplasm

Feedback
India ink can aid in the visualization of the polysaccharide capsules of yeast such as Cryptococcus neoformans.

104. Match the organisms on the right with their appropriate type from the drop down box:

a. Protozoa _ Trypanosoma, Leishmania

b. Helminths _ Trichinella, Schistosoma

c. Protozoa _ Plasmodium

d. Helminths _ Ascaris, Cestodes

105. The most frequent genotype among Rh_o (D) -negative persons is:

a. r' r

b. r' r"

c. rr

d. r'r'

106. Which one tests should be used to monitor a patient's response to treatment for syphilis:

a. TPI titer, FTA-ABS titer

b. RPR titer

c. TPHA titer

d. All

Feedback
RPR titer should be performed every three months for one year; a fourfold increase in titer indicates infection, reinfection, or failed treatment; a fourfold decrease in titer indicates adequate treatment.

107. Which of the following anticoagulants will not produce a significant effect on calcium levels in plasma:

a. EDTA

b. Heparin

c. Oxalates

d. Citrates

Feedback
EDTA, Oxalates, and Citrates remove calcium from the blood, while heparin acts by forming a complex with antithrombin III.

108. Which of the following kappa / lambda ratios is found in normal serum:

a. 4 : 1

b. 3 : 1

c. 2 : 1

d. 1 : 1

109. The A₁ subgroup represents approximately what percentage of group A individuals:

a. 25%

b. 55%

c. 75%

d. 95%

Feedback
Approximately 80% of all people typed as group A or AB are agglutinated by anti- A₁ sera.

110. The infective stage for all of the intestinal amoebae is the:

a. Trophozoite

b. Cyst

c. Larva

d. Egg

Feedback
The majority of the amoebae pass through two life cycle stages: a delicate feeding stage call a trophozoite, and a nonfeeding infective cyst. Recovery of either form is considered diagnostic.

111. Which of the following is false about troponin:

a. It rises much sooner after an MI than CK-MB

b. It stays positive much longer than CK-MB

c. It is potentially more specific than CK-MB

d. Troponin T is often elevated in renal failure patients

Feedback
Troponin is potentially more specific for myocardial damage than CK-MB and stays elevated longer. It may eventually replace CK-MB as the standard marker of myocardial damage. Troponin and CK-MB both tend to rise approximately 3 hours after a MI; however, troponins can stay elevated up to 2 weeks as CK-MB tends to return to baseline around 36 hours.

112. What is the purpose of using methyl alcohol in the gram stain procedure:

a. Fix all gram positive organisms

b. Decolorize all gram positive organisms

c. Decolorize all gram negative organisms

d. Fix all gram negative organisms

Feedback
Gram positive organisms resist decolorization by methyl alcohol.

113.Match the differential/ selective enteric medium with its characteristic indicator, fermentable, and bacteriostatic.

a. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate _ phenol red, lactose, bile salts

b. Eosin methylene blue _ eosin Y and methylene blue, lactose, eosin Y and methylene blue

c. Bismuth sulfite_ bismuth sulfite, glucose, brilliant green

d. Salmonella-shigella_ neutral red, lactose, bile salts

Feedback
XLD has a yellow fermenter and a red nonfermenter. MacConkey has a red fermenter and a colorless nonfermenter. EMB has a black/red fermenter and a colorless nonfermenter. HE has a yellow fermenter and a green nonfermenter. BS has a Salmonella fermenter and a black nonfermenter. SS has a red fermenter and a colorless nonfermenter.

114. Nephelometry involves the measurement:

a. Light absorption

b. Light transmission

c. Light scatter

d. Atomic absorption

Feedback
Nephelometry is used to measure the light scattered by particles in a solution. It is useful for measuring protein levels in fluids, and antigen-antibody complexes.

115. Which of the following procedures would you employ to monitor the precision of an assay:

a. Run assayed controls

b. Run blinded samples

c. Run by alternative method

d. Run samples in duplicate

Feedback
Precision is a measure of reproducibility of a test when it is repeated several times under the same conditions. It could be monitored by running samples in duplicate or triplicate.

116. Which of the following immunoglobulin classes is chiefly responsible for the degranulation of mast cells and basophils:

a. IgG

b. IgA

c. IgM

d. IgE

Feedback
IgE levels are often increased in patients with allergic disease. IgE binds to the membranes of mast cells and basophils, and if specific antigen is present to react with the IgE molecule, degranulation of these cells occurs, releasing histamines, and other substances into the blood or tissues.

117. The lecethin to sphingomyelin ratio (L/S) is used to assess:

a. Fetal neurological development

b. Fetal lung maturity

c. Fetal viability

d. Fetal liver development

Feedback
An L/S ratio above 2:1 indicates mature lung development, whereas a ratio below 1.5:1 indicates pulmonary immaturity.

118. What additional fraction would be seen if plasma rather than serum was subjected to electrophoresis:

a. Alpha-1 antitrypsin

b. Alpha-2 macroglobulin

c. Gamma globulins

d. Fibrinogen

Feedback
Fibrinogen present in plasma would form a band between the beta and gamma globulins.

119. Which of the following is a routine staining technique used in the clinical laboratory:

a. Wright-Giemsa

b. Gram

c. Romanowsky

d. All of the above

120. Match the description with the appropriate illustration of colony elevations:

a. High Convex - A

b. Flat - B

c. Low Convex - C

d. Plateau - D

121. Which of the following is most commonly associated with febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions:

a. Bacterial contamination of the blood

b. I.V. tubing contaminants

c. Reaction to plasma proteins
d. Immune response to leukocytes

122. Which of the following is not a structural component of a typical virion:

a. Nucleoprotein core

b. Capsid shell

c. Lipid envelope

d. Icosahedral symmetry

Feedback
An intact viral particle typically consists of a nucleoprotein core, capsomeres making up the capsid, and a lipid envelope (absent in some viruses). The symmetry of a virus is usually icosahedral, or helical.

123. Match urine color with substance that might have been responsible:

a. Phosphates – White

b. Porphobilinogen – Red to brown

c. Bilirubin – Yellow

d. Pseudomonas – Blue to green

124. The renal threshold is best described as:

a. Concentration at which a substance in the blood spills into urine

b. Concentration at which reabsorption first occurs

c. Concentration at which kidney can no longer filter the blood

d. Concentration at which kidney failure begins

Feedback
The renal threshold is the maximum amount of a substance that the kidney can prevent from entering into the urine.

125. An urticarial reaction is characterized by:

a. Rapid rise in temperature

b. Difficulty breathing

c. Rash and hives

d. Blood in the urine

Feedback
Urticarial transfusion reactions occur in up to 1% of transfusions. They are manifested by hives, rash, and itching. The transfusion may be resumed after successful administration of antihistamines.

126. On sheep blood agar Haemophilus influenzae may exhibit satellite formation around all but which of the following organisms:

a. Pseudomonas

b. Neisseria

c. Staphylococcus

d. Pneumococcus

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Neisseria, Staphylococcus, and Pneumococcus produce enough V factor to allow H. influenzae to grow on blood agar near their colonies. This property is utilized in the "satellite test" technique whereby minute colonies of Haemophilus are seen in the hemolytic zone surrounding a streak of Staphylococcus aureus on sheep blood agar, providing a presumptive identification of Haemophilus.

127. Adult Hematopoiesis occurs in:

a. Vertebrae

b. Skull

c. Proximal ends of long bones

d. All of the above

Feedback
By the age of 18-20 years, active hematopoiesis is limited to the sternum, ribs, pelvis, vertebrae, and skull.

128. A simple check which can be employed to verify that hemoglobin and hematocrit values match would be:

a. Hematocrit X 3 = hemoglobin

b. Hemoglobin X 3 = hematocrit

c. Hemoglobin / hematocrit = 3

d. Hemoglobin + hematocrit = 3

Feedback
The hematocrit is equal to approximately 3 times the hemoglobin level.

129. How close the assayed value of an analyte is to its actual value is a reflection of:

a. Precision of the assay

b. Reproducibility of the assay

c. Sensitivity of the assay

d. Accuracy of the assay

Feedback
Accuracy is defined as how close an assayed value is to the actual value of an analyte.

130. The primary mechanism responsible for glomerular filtration is:

a. Osmotic gradient

b. Concentration of blood components

c. Rate of blood flow through the kidneys

d. Hydrostatic differential in glomerular tufts

Feedback
The hydrostatic pressure in the capillaries of the glomerular tuft drives the filtrate across their semipermeable membrane. The normal glomerular filtrate is similar in composition to the plasma, with the exception that molecules with a molecular weight of greater than about 15,000 are not filtered.

131. Which of the following best describes a minor crossmatch:

a. Reaction of donor cells with recipient serum

b. Reaction of donor cells with AHG

c. Reaction of recipient cells with AHG

d. Reaction of donor serum with recipient cells

132. Fire requires what three elements?

a. heat, fuel, oxygen

b. paper, match, gasoline

c. heat, fuel, nitrogen

d. lighter fluid, charcoal, grill

133. A 20 year-old female was admitted into the hospital complaining of 10 to 15 bloody mucous stools per day, fever, gastrointestinal disturbances, abdominal pain, and nausea. The preliminary O & P report went out as "Probable Entamoeba histolytica trophozoites and cysts, confirmation pending." This patient is most likely suffering from:

a. Traveler's diarrhea

b. Extraintestinal amebiasis

c. Intestinal amebiasis

d. Giardiasis

134. Which of the following Rh antigens is found the highest frequency in the Caucasian population:

a. C

b. E

c. c

d. e

Feedback
The e antigen is present in 98% of the Caucasian population

135. What is another name used to designate a fully committed B-lymphocyte:

a. T-lymphocyte

b. Reactive lymphocyte

c. Large lymphocyte

d. Plasma cell

Feedback
Plasma cells are the end stage of B lymphocyte maturation; they are not normally seen in peripheral blood.

136. Serum calcitonin is typically elevated in which of the following conditions:

a. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

b. Hyperthyroidism

c. Glioblastoma

d. Adrenal adenoma

Feedback
Serum calcitonin is normally produced by the C cells of the thyroid. It functions to reduce serum calcium by inhibiting release of calcium from bone. It is a peptide with a molecular weight of 3400, and has a half life of approximately 12 minutes. It is characteristically elevated in medullary carcinoma of the thyroid. Since medullary carcinoma often occurs as an autosomal disorder, family members of patients with this condition should be screened for serum calcitonin.

137. Warfarin inhibits all the following coagulation Factors except:

a. Factor II

b. Factor IX

c. Factor VII

d. Factor XI

Feedback
Warfarin only inhibits vitamin K dependent factors; Factor XI is not vitamin K dependent.

138. Match the organism names from the drop down box to the name of the associated condition listed below.

a. Plasmodium ovale - Malaria

b. Trypanosoma cruzi - Chagas' Disease

c. Cestodes - Tapeworms

d. Trypanosoma rhodesiense - Sleeping Sickness

139. Serum proteins can be separated by cellulose acetate electrophoresis into how many basic fractions:

a. 4 fractions

b. 5 fractions

c. 6 fractions

d. 7 fractions

Feedback
The five basic fractions are albumin, alpha-1, alpha-2, beta, and gamma globulins.

140. Which of the following specimens would not be considered suitable for anaerobic culture:

a. Drainage from a puncture wound

b. Throat swab

c. Drainage from abdomen

d. Blood culture

Feedback
Anaerobes are predominant in the colon. Anaerobic habitats have reduced oxygen tension usually resulting from the metabolic activity of aerobic organisms. Thus, anaerobic infections are usually polymicrobial, with aerobes, facultative anaerobes, and obligate anaerobes all contributing to the infection.

141. Which band on the following serum protein electrophoresis scan is not made up of a mixture of proteins:

a. Beta

b. Alpha - 1

c. Alpha - 2

d. Albumin

142. Which of the following is not necessary for bacteria to grow successfully on artificial media:

a. Pure isolate

b. Proper temperature

c. Proper Ph

d. Proper moisture

Feedback

A mixture of bacteria can easily grow together on media as long as the other factors are all maintained correctly.

143. Why would a unit of group O blood never be administered to a Bombay patient:

a. Anti-A in donor

b. Anti-B in donor

c. Anti-H in donor

d. Anti-H in recipient

Feedback
The classic Bombay phenotype (O_h) is characterized by the absence of A, B and H antigens, and the presence of anti-H, which will react from 4^o to 37^o C. Bombay patients must therefore be transfused only with blood from donors of the Bombay phenotype.

144. Total magnification of a microscope can be determined by:

a. Multiplying power of objective times the power of the ocular

b. Dividing the power of objective by the power of the ocular

c. Dividing the power of the ocular by the power of the objective

d. Adding the power of the ocular and objective together X 10

145. IgM antibodies directed against red cells generally:

a. React best at 37 degrees Celsius

b. Cause severe hemolytic reactions

c. Are identified using the AHG test

d. React best at room temperature

146. Identify the reaction seen in Illustration

a. Identity

b. Nonidentity

c. Partial identity

d. All

147. Which of the following organisms is not an aerobic organism:

a. Francisella

b. Bacteroides

c. Pseudomonas

d. Neisseria

Feedback

Francisella tularensis is an aerobic gram-negative coccobaccillary organism requiring cystine or cysteine to grow. It causes tuleremia, which can manifest as cutaneous papules and ulcers, conjunctivitis, fever, myalgias, and lymphadenopathy. It can be diagnosed by culture on appropriate media, or serology. Bacteroides fragilis is an anaerobic gram-negative rod which is resistant to most penicillins. It can cause a variety of life threatening infections. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a strictly aerobic gram-negative motile bacillus; it causes a variety of infections especially among patients who are immunocompromised for a variety of reasons, and it causes wound infections in moist air.

148. Which of the following statements about Rickettsia is false:

a. They are obligate intracellular parasites

b. They are gram negative bacilli

c. Associated diseases are usually diagnosed by serology

d. They are cultured in many hospital laboratories

Feedback
Various Rickettsial species cause typhus, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, Rickettsialpox, and Q fever. Rickettsial organisms are cultured only by research and reference laboratories, and the diagnosis is usually achieved by a combination of clinical findings, and acute and convalescent serology. Early diagnosis of Rocky Mountain spotted fever can also be made by immunofluorescence testing of a skin biopsy, where Rickettsia can often be found within endothelial cells of capillary vessels.

149. Coarse basophilic stippling in all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Megaloblastic anemias

b. Thalassemias

c. Lead poisoning

d. Hemolytic anemia

Feedback
Hemolytic anemia may be associated with fine basophilic stippling due to precipitated RNA in polychromatophilic erythrocytes. It is not usually associated with coarse stippling. The other conditions above have coarse stippling in the setting of abnormal hemoglobin synthesis.

150. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is used in the determination of:

a. Liver function

b. Fetal maturity

c. Pregnancy

d. Steroid levels

151. Estrogen and progesterone markers are most commonly used to provide prognostic information about:

a. Breast cancer

b. Uterine cancer

c. Menopause

d. Cervical cancer

Feedback
Patients with tumors positive for both estrogen and progesterone receptors tend to respond favorably to hormonal therapy, whereas those without generally do not. Patients with positive estrogen and progesterone receptors also have a somewhat better prognosis.

152. Materials such as strong acids and bases are classified as:

a. Corrosives

b. Chemical irritants

c. Flammable liquids

d. Carcinogens

153. Elevation in conjugated bilirubin is most likely to be found in which of the following conditions:

a. Transfusion reactions

b. Erythroblastosis fetalis

c. Cirrhosis of the liver

d. Biliary obstruction

Feedback
Posthepatic jaundice is the result of bile duct obstruction, not impaired hepatic function. It will result in elevation of direct (conjugated) bilirubin.

154. Pluripotential stem cells are capable of producing which of the following:

a. Only T-lymphocyte and B-lymphocyte subsets

b. Erythropoietin, thrombopoietin and leukopoietin

c. Lymphoid and myeloid stem cells

d. Daughter cells from only a single cell line

Feedback
Pluripotential stem cells are ultimately capable of differentiating into all types of leukocytes.

155. Match the differential/ selective enteric medium with its characteristic indicator, fermentable, and bacteriostatic.

a. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate _ phenol red, lactose, bile salts

b. Eosin methylene blue _ eosin Y and methylene blue, lactose, eosin Y and methylene blue

c. Bismuth sulfite _ bismuth sulfite, glucose, brilliant green

d. Salmonella-shigella _ neutral red, lactose, bile salts

156. What is the largest constituent of plasma nonprotein nitrogen:

a. Ammonia

b. Creatinine

c. Ketones

d. Urea

157. What principle(s) of flow cytometry are employed when performing immunophenotyping:

a. Diffraction gradients

b. Impedance

c. Diffraction gradients and impedance

d. Fluorescent antibody tagging and light scatter

Feedback

Flow cytometry employs a combination of fluorescent antibody tagging of cells and analysis with laser light scatter.

158. Which is arranged from least mature to most mature:

a. Stem Cell, Rubriblast, Prorubricyte, Rubricyte, Metarubricyte, Reticulocyte, Erythrocyte

b. Stem Cell, Prorubricyte, Metarubricyte, Erythrocyte, Rubriblast, Rubricyte, Reticulocyte

c. Erythrocyte, Reticulocyte, Metarubricyte, Rubricyte, Prorubricyte, Rubriblast, Stem Cell

d. Rubricyte, Rubriblast, Stem Cell, Prorubricyte, Erythrocyte, Reticulocyte, Metarubricyte

159. The term used to describe patients with absence of Rh antigens is:

a. Rh_d

b. Rh_null

c. Rh_mod

d. Rh_o

Feedback
Rh_null individuals have no Rh antigens. Rh_mod individuals show reduced and varied reactivity with Rh antigens.

160. Which is the best method for examination of synovial crystals:

a. Phase contrast

b. Darkfield microscopy

c. Brightfield microscopy

d. Polarized light

Feedback
A polarizing microscope with a first order red compensator is used to identify identify crystals in synovial fluid: Needle shaped monosodium urate crystals are strongly negatively birefringent, while rhomboid calcium pyrophosphate crystals are weakly positively birefringent.

161. Which of the following antibodies is the most common cause of hemolytic disease of the newborn:

a. Anti-A

b. Anti-B

c. Anti-E

d. Anti-D

162. Which of the following is not true about members of the Enterobacteriaceae:

a. Gram-negative

b. Oxidase positive

c. Reduce nitrate to nitrite

d. Ferment glucose

Feedback
Any oxidase-positive organism can be excluded from the Enterobacteriaceae. The other characteristics are as a rule present in these organisms.

163. Match these autoimmune diseases with their corresponding serological markers:

a. Primary biliary cirrhosis _ Antimitochondrial antibodies

b. CREST syndrome _ Anticentromere antibodies

c. Wegener’s granulomatosis _ Antineutrophilic antibodies

d. Rheumatic fever _ Antimyocardial antibodies

164. Match each virus with its appropriate nucleic acid content:

a. RNA _ Togavirus

b. RNA _ Coronavirus

c. DNA _ Herpesvirus

d. DNA _ Adenovirus

165. Which one of the following is not a benefit of using packed RBCs:

a. Decreasing the load of potential donor antibodies

b. Decreasing the risk of transfusion associated infection

c. Decreasing plasma volume

d. More efficient use of the whole blood unit

166. Match the following terms with the statement that best describes each:

a. Meninges _ Membrane covering the brain under the skull

b. Transudate _ Fluid accumulation due to a malfunction of ability to form and reabsorb fluid

c. Pleurisy _ Inflammation of the pleural membranes

d. Effusion _ Excess accumulation of fluid within any of the body's serous cavities

167. The adult worms of which of the following reside in the intestine or its blood vessels:

a. Heterophyes heterophyes

b. Schistosoma mansoni

c. Clonorchis sinensis

d. Schistosoma haematobium

168. Match the illustrations with the corresponding classification of bacteria:

a. Spirilla _A

b. Cocci _B

c. Vibros _D

d. Bacilli _F

169. If a test is said to have a sensitivity of 95%, it will :

a. Miss 5 out of 100 negatives

b. Miss 5 out of 100 positives

c. Detect 5 out of 100 positives

d. Detect 5 out of 100 negatives

Feedback
A sensitivity of 95% means that 5 results out of a possible 100 that should have been detected as positive by a method will have been reported as negative. These results are termed false negatives.

170. Which one of the following are not associated with a polyclonal (broadbased) increase in gamma globulins?

a. Liver disease

b. Chronic inflammation

c. Immune reaction

d. Immunodeficiency

Feedback
Immunodeficiency would, of course, generally be associated with a decrease in serum immunoglobulin levels, and an associated decreased gamma band.

171. Which of the following tests would be used to directly document the presence of a specific organism in a clinical specimen:

a. ELISA test

b. Hemagglutination test

c. Hemagglutination inhibition test

d. Direct fluorescent antibody test

Feedback
A direct fluorescent antibody test (DFA) can be used, for example, to detect antigens of Legionella, Bordetella, Neisseria, and Treponema in appropriate clinical specimens. However DFA can detect only antigens, not antibodies.

172. That portion of an enzyme which is separated from its cofactor is called a(n):

a. Partial enzyme

b. Isoenzyme

c. Coenzyme

d. Apoenzyme

Feedback
A partial enzyme is not an actual term used in the laboratory. An isoenzyme is a related enzyme with a different chemical structure. Finally, a coenzyme is a non-protein molecule (often a vitamin) that helps an enzyme become active.

173. Increases in the MB fraction of CK is associated with:

a. Liver disease

b. Bone disease

c. Muscle trauma

d. Myocardial infarction

Feedback
The isoenzyme CK-MB is fairly cardiac specific. It is elevated within 6 to 8 hours of a myocardial infarction, and remains elevated for about 2 to 3 days post infarction.

174. A normal hemoglobin molecule is comprised of the following:

a. Ferrous iron and four globin chains

b. Four heme and four globin chains

c. Four heme and one globin chains

d. One heme and four globin chains

Feedback
A normal hemoglobin molecule consists of a tetramer with a molecular weight of 64,500 daltons. The constituent monomers are each composed of one heme molecule, and one polypeptide globin chain.

175. A delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction is most likely to be the result of which of the following antibodies:

a. Le^a

b. A

c. Jk^a

d. B

Feedback
Jk^a (Kidd) antibodies are very dangerous; they disappear from circulation quickly and can cause severe delayed transfusion reactions.

176. Increased excretion of creatinine would be expected in which of the following groups:

a. Elderly males/females

b. Adult males

c. Adult females

d. Children/infants

Feedback
Diets high in meats, and extreme exercise will cause a significant increase in creatinine excretion.

177. Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal medulla that results in elevated urinary levels of all but which of the following:

a. Cortisol

b. Free catecholamines

c. Metanephrines

d. Vanillylmandelic acid

Feedback
Pheochromocytoma is an adrenal or extra adrenal neoplasm that secretes catecholamines. Patients with pheochromocytoma often exhibit persistent and paroxysmal hypertension. The single best screening test is urinary metanephrines. Urinary free catecholamines, and vanillylmandelic acid are also elevated.

178. A patient reports to the er complaining of a red macular rash on the ankles and wrist for the last day and influenza like sx for 4 days (chills, fever, severe headache and myalgia) The rash has now spread centrally and become petechial.A urinalysis reveals proteinuria and hematuria. Based on the following sx what condition would the patient most likely have?

a. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever(correct answer)

b. Q Fever(your answer

c. chlamydia Pssitica

d. Kawasaki Syndrome

e. Toxoplasmosis

179. "Mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome" is also known as what?

a. Q Fever

b. Kawasaki Syndrome(correct answer)

c. Rocky Mountain Spotted fever

d. Mycoplasma Pneumonia(your answer)

e. Chlamydia trachomatis

180. Which of the following blood smears these illustrations would be best suited for performing a differential count:

a. Top Photo

b. Bottom Photo

Feedback

An even distribution of red blood cells on a smear is necessary for accurate differential counts.

181. Choose the term that describes the most prominent finding in this peripheral smear:

a. Rouleaux

b. Normal RBCs

c. Anisocytosis

Feedback

Anisocytosis is a variation in the size of the red blood cells. This slide shows poikilocytosis, but anisocytosis is more prominent here.

182. The intracellular precipitates seen in the RBCs in this illustration is termed:

a. Dohle bodies

b. Heinz bodies

c. May-Hegglin anomaly

d. Reticulocytes

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Heinz bodies occur as the result of denaturation and precipitation of hemoglobin, and are often attached to the red cell membrane. They require staining with crystal violet or methyl violet to be visible. They may be seen in thalassemia, with unstable hemoglobins, or during a hemolytic episode in G6PD deficiency.

183. The growth seen here on PPLO agar is most likely caused by:

a. Streptococcus pneumoniae

b. Klebsiella pneumoniae

c. Mycobacterium

d. Mycoplasma

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PPLO agar is used for the isolation and cultivation of Mycoplasma species.

184. A definitive diagnosis of malaria can be made by:

a. Serological testing

b. Culture techniques

c. Demonstration of the organisms in peripheral blood

d. Biochemical reactions

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Diagnosis of malaria may require thick smears as well as conventional thin blood smears.

185. Identify the cell in this illustration indicated by the arrow:

a. Myelocyte

b. Monocyte

c. Metamyelocyte

d. Lymphocyte

186. Identify the Revolving nosepiece and Mechanical stage

a. K, L

b. C, D

c. F, G

d. A, B

187. I may be found in stool.

a. Taenia saginata scolex

b. Diphyllobothrium latum scolex

c. Taenia solium scolex

d. Echinococcus granulosus scolex

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The scolex of Taenia solium may be distinguished from the other cestode scolices by its four distinct suckers and the presence of a rostellum armed with hooklets.

188. Based on the phenotype of the RBC screening cells, and patient results given below, which of the following antibodies cannot be ruled out:

a. Anti-C

b. Anti-Jka

c. Anti-M

d. Anti-Fya

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It is only possible to rule out on screening cell 2 since it demonstrates a negative reaction with the patient serum. Anti-C cannot be ruled out since the antigen is heterozygous on screening cell 2. Anti-Fy^acannot be ruled out since this antigen is not present on screening cell 2. Anti-M and anit-Jk^a can be ruled out since the antigens are homozygous while demonstrating a negative reaction on screening cell 2

189. Identify the urine sediment elements indicated by the arrow in the illustration:

a. Cholesterol crystals

b. Triple phosphate crystals

c. Amorphous urate crystals

d. Ammonium biurate crystals

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Triple phosphate crystals appear as colorless prisms with 3 to 6 sides and oblique ends, or as "feathery sleeves". The have been described as "coffin lid shaped", and can occur normally in alkaline urine. They may indicate the presence of an infection.

190. Identify the urine sediment elements shown by the arrow:

a. Cylindroids

b. Mucus threads

c. Hyaline casts

d. Budding yeast

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Mucus thread appear as long, thin ribbon like threads that are generally transparent. They are normal in small numbers in the urine.

191. This suspicious form was recovered in blood.

a. Plasmodium vivax ring form

b. Plasmodium malariae band form

c. Plasmodium falciparum ring form

d. Pseudoparasite

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Plasmodium falciparum ring forms often resemble a walkman headset by containing two chromatin dots instead of one, as commonly seen in the other Plasmodium species. These dots serve as connecting points for the ring of cytoplasm.

192. Identify the Eye piece and Binocular (observation tube):

a. B, E

b. G, D

c. A, K

d. J, F

193. The elements indicated by the arrows are more likely to be seen in patients with which condition:

a. Bacterial infection

b. Nephrotic syndrome

c. Diabetes

d. Renal failure

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Yeast cells as a cause of infection are more commonly found in patients with diabetes mellitus, but can also represent contaminants with no clinical significance. They should not be confused with erythrocytes. The presence of budding helps with the identification.

194. Identify the cell in this illustration indicated by the arrow:

a. Eosinophil

b. Monocyte

c. Basophil

d. Neutrophil

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Eosinophils have characteristic large prominent orange granules.

195. What type of cast is shown in the illustration:

a. WBC casts

b. RBC casts

c. Waxy casts

d. Granular casts

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RBC casts may appear as brown to almost colorless. Red cells can clearly be seen within the cast. This type of cast is diagnostic of glomerular disease or intrarenal bleeding.

196. This suspicious form was found in stool.

a. Pseudoparasite

b. Hookworm rhabditiform larva

c. Strongyloides rhabditiform larva

d. Strongyloides filariform larva

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Although this suspicious form resembles an intestinal nematode larva, internal structures necessary for it to function as well as to identify it as a parasite are lacking. Numerous such pseudoparasites may be present in stool samples.

197. This suspicious form was found in stool.

a. Pseudoparasite

b. Hookworm rhabditiform larva

c. Strongyloides rhabditiform larva
d. Strongyloides filariform larva

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Although this suspicious form resembles an intestinal nematode larva, internal structures necessary for it to function as well as to identify it as a parasite are lacking. Numerous such pseudoparasites may be present in stool samples.

198. The most likely organism to be cultured on the Lowenstein-Jensen agar slant illustrated here would be:

a. Crytococcus

b. Chlamydia

c. Mycobacteria

d. Listeria

199. This suspicious form, shown below at both low (10X) and high dry (40X) power, measures 90 micro meters by 42 micro meters. It was seen in a stool sample.

a. Hookworm egg

b. Pseudoparasite

c. Ascaris lumbricoides egg

d. Diphyllobothrium latum egg

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The mature eggs of Ascaris lumbricoides are readily visible at both 10X and 40X dry. The organism size as well as the presence of an outer albuminous coating help to identify the egg.

200. Which of the following conditions is frequently associated with these cells?

a. Hemolytic anemia

b. Chronic blood loss

c. Megaloblastic anemia

d. Sickle cell anemia

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Hypersegmented neutrophils are associated with megaloblastic anemias.

201. The cell indicated by the arrow in this illustration is called:

a. Hair cell

b. Smudge cell

c. Megakaryocyte

d. Blast

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Smudge Cells (bare nuclei) are commonly seen in blood smears from patients with chronic lymphocytic leukemia.

202. Identify the urine sediment elements shown by the arrow:

a. Cholesterol crystals

b. Uric acid crystals

c. Amorphous urate crystals

d. Cystine crystals

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Cystine crystals are characteristically seen as colorless hexagonal plates in acid urine. They may be confused with hexagonal uric acid crystals. They can be differentiated from uric acid by their solubility in dilute hydrochloric acid versus crystalline uric acid, which is not soluble in dilute hydrochloric acid. The cyanide-nitroprusside test can be used to confirm the presence of cystine in urine. Cystine crystals are not present in normal urine.

203. Identify the urine sediment elements shown by the arrow:

a. Yeast

b. WBCs

c. Fat

d. Starch crystals

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Starch crystals often contaminate normal urine. They appear round to oval, are highly refractile, with an irregular indentation in the center. They may exhibit the "Maltese cross" appearance under polarized light.

204. The RBCs seen in this illustration are indicative of:

a. Normal cells

b. Microcytic cells

c. Macrocytic cells

d. Hypochromic cells

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Normal red cells are uniformly shaped and sized with 2-3 mm of central pallor.

205. The McFarland Comparison Card shown in the illustration is used to:

a. Perform sensitivity testing

b. Standardize concentrations of organisms

c. Q.C. broth media

d. Determine MICs

206. The WBC indicated by the arrow in this illustration is exhibiting:

a. Dohle bodies

b. Hypersegmentation

c. Degranulation

d. Pelger-Huet anomaly

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Pelger-Huet anomoly is an autosomal dominant condition characterized by hyposegmentation of neutrophils. Decreased nuclear segmentation may also be seen as an acquired disorder in cases of granulocytic leukemia, myeloproliferative disorders, infections, and after exposure to certain drugs.

207. The abnormal RBC shape seen in this illustration is:

a. Sickle cell

b. Thorn cell

c. Fragmented cell

d. Crenated cell

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Crenated red cells usually occur as an artifact during the preparation of blood smears.

Question and Answer session

208. Question 1: What is the genus authority of Mycobacterium?

Your Answer: Lehmann & Neumann 1896 - Correct!

209. Question 2: What genus does Staphylococcus aureus belong to?

Your Answer: Staphylococcus - Correct!

210. Question 3: What is the binomial authority of Saccharomyces cerevisiae?

Your Answer: Meyen ex E.C. Hansen - Correct!

211. Question 4: What classes does Rickettsia belong to?

Your Answer: Alpha Proteobacteria - Correct!

212. Question 5: What family does Serratia Marcescens belong to?

Your Answer: Enterobacteriaceae - Correct!

213. Question 6: Microorganisms are beneficial for microbial biodegradation or ________ of domestic, agricultural and industrial wastes and subsurface pollution in soils, sediments, and marine environments.

Your Answer: Bioremediation - Correct!

214. Question 7: What domain does Bacillus belong to?

Your Answer: Bacteria - Correct!

215. Question 8: What is the binomial of Streptococcus pneumoniae?

Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae - Correct!

216. Question 9: What is the genus authority of Mycoplasma?

Your Answer: Nowak 1929 - Correct!

217. Question 10: What is the genus authority of Listeria?

Your Answer: Pirie 1940 - Correct!

218. Question 11: Since sites typically have multiple pollutant types, the most effective approach to ________ is to use a mixture of bacterial species and strains, each specific to the biodegradation of one or more types of contaminants.

Your Answer: Microbial biodegradation - Correct!

219. Question 12: What is Alexander Fleming known for?

Your Answer: Discovery of penicillin - Correct!

220. Question 13: He also hypothesized on the contagious nature of tuberculosis and other ________, and used quarantine as a means of limiting the spread of contagious diseases.

Your Answer: Infectious disease - Correct!

221. Question 14: What classis does Rickettsia belong to?

Your Answer: Alpha Proteobacteria - Correct!

222. Question 15: What classis does Saccharomyces cerevisiae belong to?

Your Answer: Saccharomycetes - Correct!

223. Question 16: What is the genus authority of Shigella?

Your Answer: Castellani & Chalmers 1919 - Correct!

224. Question 17: What is the genus authority of Campylobacter?

Your Answer: Sebald and Vu00E9ron 1963 - Correct!

225. Question 18: What is the genus authority of Acinetobacter?

Your Answer: Brisou & Pru00E9vot 1954 - Correct!

226. Question 19: Examples include industrial fermentation and ________.

Your Answer: Sewage treatment - Correct!

227. Question 20: What is the genus authority of Lactobacillus?

Your Answer: Beijerinck 1901- Correct!

228. Question 21: What is the genus authority of Mycobacterium?

Your Answer: Lehmann & Neumann 1896 - Correct!

229. Question 22: Microbiology is a broad term which includes virology, mycology, parasitology, ________ and other branches.

Your Answer: Microbiology - Correct!

230. Question 23: What is the chemical name of Ampicillin (IUPAC)

Your Answer: carboxylic acid - Correct!

231. Question 24: In 1546 Girolamo Fracastoro proposed that epidemic ________ were caused by transferable seedlike entities that could transmit infection by direct or indirect contact or even without contact over long distances.

Your Answer: Disease - Correct!

232. Question 25: Although not truly unique, the cell walls of ________ are unusual.

Your Answer: Archaea - Correct!

233. Question 26: Key nutrients, especially water and ________, are distributed throughout the plant from cell wall to cell wall in apoplastic flow.

Your Answer: Carbon dioxide - Correct!

234. Question 27: They are found in plants, bacteria, fungi, ________, and some archaea.

Your Answer: Algae - Correct!

235. Question 28: Bacterial cell walls are different from the cell walls of plants and fungi which are made of ________ and chitin, respectively.

Your Answer: Cellulose - Correct!

236. Question 29: ________ - Nucleus (and Nucleolus) - Endoplasmic reticulum - Golgi apparatus - Peroxisome - Parenthesome

Your Answer: Cell wall , Wrong. Should have been Cell membrane

237. Question 30: What does the following picture show?

Your Answer: Schematic of typical [a href=/Gram-positive title=Gram-positive class=mw-redirect]gram-positive[/a] cell wall showing arrangement of N-Acetylglucosamine and N-Acetlymuramic acid - Correct!

238. Question 31: The names originate from the reaction of cells to the ________, a test long-employed for the classification of bacterial species.

Your Answer: Gram staining - Correct!

239. Question 32: It further permits the creation of a stable ________ environment by preventing osmotic lysis and helping to retain water.

Your Answer: Osmosis - Correct!

240. Question 33: The cells are held together and share the gelatinous membrane called the middle lamella, which contains magnesium and ________ pectates (salts of pectic acid).

Your Answer: Calcium - Correct!

241. Question 34: Not all species of ________ have cell walls but in those that do, the plasma membrane is followed by three layers of cell wall material.

Your Answer: Fungus - Correct!

242. Question 35: It is located outside the ________ and provides these cells with structural support and protection, and also acts as a filtering mechanism.

Your Answer: Cell membrane - Correct!

243. Question 36: Until recently they were widely believed to be fungi, but structural and molecular evidence[8] has led to their reclassification as heterokonts, related to autotrophic ________ and diatoms.

Your Answer: Brown algae - Correct!

244. Question 37: The middle lamella, a layer rich in ________.

Your Answer: Pectin - Correct!

245. Question 38: The antibiotic ________ is able to kill bacteria by preventing the cross-linking of peptidoglycan and this causes the cell wall to weaken and lyse.

Your Answer: Penicillin - Correct!

246. Question 39: What does the following picture show?

Your Answer: Diagram of a typical [a href=/Gram-negative bacteria title=Gram-negative bacteria]gram-negative[/a] bacterium, with the thin cell wall sandwiched between the red outer membrane and the thin green plasma membrane - Correct!

247.. Question 40: Unusually, ________ have a cell wall composed of silicic acid.

Your Answer: Diatom - Correct!

248. Question 41: In some cells, such as found xylem, the secondary wall contains ________, which strengthens and waterproofs the wall.

Your Answer: Lignin - Correct!

249. Question 42: Secondary walls - especially in grasses - may also contain microscopic ________ crystals, which may strengthen the wall and protect it from herbivores.

Your Answer: Silicon dioxide - Correct!

250. Question 43: What does the following picture show?

Your Answer: Diagram of the plant cell, with the cell wall in green. -Correct!

251. Question 44: In most cells, the cell wall is flexible, meaning that it will bend rather than holding a fixed shape, but has considerable ________.

Your Answer: Tensile strength - Correct!

252. Question 45: In addition to fixing carbon dioxide in photosynthesis, some bacteria also fix ________ gas (nitrogen fixation) using the enzyme nitrogenase.

Your Answer: Nitrogen - Correct!

253. Question 46: Certain genera of Gram-positive bacteria, such as Bacillus, ________, Sporohalobacter, Anaerobacter and Heliobacterium, can form highly resistant, dormant structures called endospores.

Your Answer: Clostridium - Correct!

254. Question 47: Bacterial metabolism is classified into nutritional groups on the basis of three major criteria: the kind of energy used for growth, the source of ________, and the electron donors used for growth.

Your Answer: Carbon - Correct!

255. Question 48: In 1910, Paul Ehrlich developed the first antibiotic, by changing dyes that selectively stained Treponema Pallidum —the spirochaete that causes ________—into compounds that selectively killed the pathogen.

Your Answer: Syphilis - Correct!

256. Question 49: The vast majority of the bacteria in the body are rendered harmless by the protective effects of the ________, and a few are beneficial.

Your Answer: Toll-like receptor
Wrong. Should have been Immune system

257. Question 50: By promoting ________ polymerization at one pole of their cells, they can form a kind of tail that pushes them through the host cell's cytoplasm.

Your Answer: Actin - Correct!

258. Question 51: The cell wall is essential to the survival of many bacteria, and the antibiotic ________ is able to kill bacteria by inhibiting a step in the synthesis of peptidoglycan.

Your Answer: Penicillin - Correct!

259. Question 52: What genus does Clostridium belong to?

Your Answer: Clostridium - Correct!

260. Question 53: What is the genus authority of Clostridium?

Your Answer: Prazmowski 1880 - Correct!

261. Question 54: What family does Clostridium belong to?

Your Answer: Clostridiaceae - Correct!

262. Question 55: C. tetani, the causative organism of ________.

Your Answer: Tetanus - Correct!

263. Question 56: What kind of animal is a Clostridium?

Your Answer: Clostridiales - Correct!

264. Question 57: What phylum does Clostridium belong to?

Your Answer: Firmicutes - Correct!

265. Question 58: The bacteria produce ________, which eventually paralyzes the infant's breathing muscles.

Your Answer: Botulinum toxin - Correct!

266. Question 59: ________ are converted by yeasts to long-chain dicarboxylic acids and then to 1,3-propanediol using Clostridium diolis.

Your Answer: Fatty acid - Correct!

267. Question 60: C. perfringens also takes the place of ________ in the making of salt rising bread.

Your Answer: Yeast - Correct!

268. Question 61: ________ sometimes contains spores of Clostridium botulinum, which may cause infant botulism in humans one year old and younger.

Your Answer: Honey

269. Question 62: M+Neisseria meningitidis/meningococcus (Meningococcal disease, Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome)

M-Neisseria gonorrhoeae/gonococcus (________)

Your Answer: Gonorrhea - Correct!

270. Question 63: Plasmodium falciparum/vivax/ovale/malariae (________, Blackwater fever)

Your Answer: Malaria - Correct!

271. Question 64: Filariasis due to ________

Your Answer: Brugia Malayi - Correct!

272. Question 65: Other specified viral infections characterized by ________ and mucous membrane lesions

Your Answer: Skin - Correct!

273. Question 66: ________ as the cause of diseases classified to other chapters

Your Answer: Coronavirus - Correct!

274. Question 67: Unspecified viral infection of ________

Your Answer: Central nervous system - Correct!

275. Question 68: Gonococcal infection of ________

Your Answer: Eye - Correct!

276. Question 69: ________ due to other specified staphylococcus

Your Answer: Sepsis - Correct!

277. Question 70: Other diseases caused by ________

Your Answer: Chlamydiae - Correct!

278. Question 71: A, bacitracin susceptible: S. pyogenes (Scarlet fever, Erysipelas, ________, Streptococcal pharyngitis)

Your Answer: Rheumatic fever - Correct!

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Sunday, March 16, 2025

DHA Exam MCQs

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