Saudi Council Exams for Lab.
Saudi Prometric Exam MCQs
for Medical Laboratory Technician/Technologist
About SCFHS Exam
SCFHS (Saudi Commission for Health Specialties) Testing Information - Learn more about the tests offered by Prometric by visiting the SCFHS Web site. ... The commission aims at upgrading professional performance, developing skills that enrich scientific literature, and properly apply knowledge in the various fields of health specialties.
As is the norm in many Gulf countries, Saudi Arabia conducts an examination (the SMLE Saudi Medical Licensing Exam) which all medical professionals have to clear if they want to practice in that country. There are different exams for different categories like Doctors, Nurses, Dentists, Pharmacists, etc. These exams are tough and very competitive with more and more people applying every year. With a huge demand-supply gap, there is cut-throat competition and only the best get through.
SCFHS Exam is a Licensing exam given to all medicos who are interested to work in Saudi Arabia. Before applying for the exam you have to complete some procedures for your document verification named as Credential. After getting your eligibility ID you can go for Exam or Data Flow, or both at the same time.
Saudi Prometric Exam of SMEL Exam (Saudi Medical Licensing Exam) and SCFHS Exam (Saudi Commission for Health Specialties): Your gateway to the Medical Career in Saudi Arabia ... Medical-Laboratory-MCQs.
Our practice tests simulate the real thing in a number of key ways:
1. Topics covered
· General Laboratory
· Chemistry
· Hematology
· Immunology/Immunohematology
· Microbiology
· Urinalysis
2. Level of difficulty
3. Timed exam, proportional to the number of questions (or untimed if you prefer)
4. Navigation
5. The feel of the real test
Total MCQs 447
Instruction: Select one best answer for the following multiple-choice Questions:
General Question
1. One is not found (involve) in colorimetric:
a. Cuvett
b. Light source
c. Photo sensor and analyzer
d. Fule source
e. Filter
2. The atomic mass of an atom is the number of:
a. Protons and neutrons
b. Protons only
c. Neutrons only
d. Electrons
e. Non of the above
3. Deionization of impure water means:
a. Boiling
b. Filtration
c. Exchange of protons and electrons
4. If you see this sign (symbol) in the lab it means:
a. Flammable
b. Corrosive
c. Oxidizing
d. Explosive
e. Toxic
5. Most common method (technique) used to detect hormone amount in the laboratories:
a. Spectrophotometry
b. Enzyme Linked Immuno Surbant Assay (ELIZA)
6. Test should be kept away from light:
a. Serum bilirubin
7. Buffer solution is:
b. Chaing color when chaing pH
c. Resist acidic pH
d. Resist alkaline pH
e. Weak acid + weak base
f. Strong acid + weak base
8. An indicator is:
a. Change color with change pH
b. Resist acidic pH
c. Resist alkaline pH
d. Weak acid + weak base
e. Strong acid + weak base
9. Heparin is:
a. Protein
b. Enzyme
c. Polysaccharide
d. Oligosaccharide
e. Non of the above
10. Not find in the flame photometry:
a. Burner
b. Filter
c. Fuel source
d. Cuvete for sample
e. Photo
11. Low effective sterilization with:
a. Ethyl alcohol 70%
b. Methyl alcohol
c. Chloroform
d. 5%phenol
e. 5% cresol
12. Prolonged fast cause:
a. Hyperglycemia
b. Keton in urine
13. Lens near the slid in light microscope:
a. Objective
b. Eye lenses
14. Does not sterile with hot air oven:
a. Dry glassware
b. Oil
c. Powder
d. Waxes
e. Rubber gloves
15. Autoclave sterilize in temp:
a. 121◌ْc-20-30min
16. Alkali skin burn treatment by neutralization with:
a. Sodium bicarbonate powder
b. Boric acid
c. Acetic acid 1%
d. Cold water
e. Hot water
17. You do not take this stage for treatment small cut in emergency:
a. Clean with soap and water
b. Do pressure with piece
c. Immediately rinse mouth well and water
d. Cover it with water dressing
e. Sterilize
18. The (u) unit used to evaluation of:
a. Protein in serum
b. Hemoglobin
c. Hormone assay
d. Enzymatic activity
19. During reaction of two chemical substances, the color produced asses by
a. Spectrophotometer
b. Flame photometer
20. To detect pH from solution use:
a. pH meter
b. Indicator
c. Micrometer
21. This Symbol means, when you see in laboratory:
a. Acute flammable
b. Toxic
c. Corrosive
d. Explosive
22. The microscope which used in investigate syphilis is?
a. Light microscope
b. Ultra-violet microscope
c. Dark field microscope
23. How much water should we add to 500ml of a solution of 10% of NAOH to bring it to 7.5%?
a. 666
b. 250
c. 166
24. Calibrator sera are?
a. Secondary standards
b. Internal standards
c. Primary standards
25. A buffer made of?
a. a strong acid + a strong salt
b. a weak acid + a weak salt
c. a weak acid + a strong salt
26. The difference between plasma & serum is that plasma?
a. Does not contain fibrinogen
b. Has more water
c. Contains fibrinogen (Plasma)
27. Five ml of colored solution has an absorbance of .500nm the absorbance of 10ml of the same solution is?
a. 1.000nm
b. 0.250nm
c. 0.500nm
28. Plasma or serum should be separated at the earliest time for estimation of glucose because?
a. Glucose value increases with time
b. Lyses of blood will occur
c. Glucose value decreases with time
29. Wavelength Visible To Naked Eye:
a. 400-700 nm.
30. Purpose of standard deviation:
a. To measure external quality control
b. To measure internal quality control
c. Precise & accuracy
d. Both a & b
31. Substance used in catalyses reaction:
a. H2o2
Hematology
32. Neutrophil count is high in:
a. Acute bacterial infection
a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Megaloblastic anemia
33. HbA2 is consisting of:
a. 3 ά chains and 2 γ chains
b. 2 ά chains and 2 β chains
c. 2 ά chains and 2 δ chains
d. 2 ά chains and 3 δ chains
e. 3 ά chains and 2 δ chains
34. The main (most) Hb found in adult is:
a. Hb A
b. Hb A2
c. Hb F
35. Detection of malaria parasite is by:
a. Thick blood film
36. Leukocyte that involve in Adaptive and Acquired immunity:
a. Lymphocyte
b. Neutrophil
c. Monocytes
d. Basophils
e. Eosinophil
35. Detection of malaria parasite is by:
a. Thick blood film
36. Leukocyte that involve in Adaptive and Acquired immunity:
a. Lymphocyte
b. Neutrophil
c. Monocytes
d. Basophile
e. Eosinophil
37. Normal range of leukocyte is:
a. 11 X 10^9
38. Reticulocyte is immature:
a. RBC
b. WBC
c. Platelet
39. Leukocyte responsible for cellular immunity:
a. T-lymphocyte
b. B- lymphocyte
c. Monocytes
d. Basophile
e. Eosinophil
40. Malaria infection transmitted by:
a. Male anopheles mosquito
b. Female anopheles mosquito
41. One stage prothrombin time used to detect (diagnose) disorders in:
a. Extrinsic coagulation pathway (factors)
b. Intrinsic coagulation pathway (factors)
42. Thrombin time is:
a. Extrinsic coagulation pathway (factors)
b. Intrinsic coagulation pathway (factors)
c. The conversion of prothrombin to fibrinogen in addition of thrombin
43. Most sever (serious) malaria infection caused by:
a. Plasmodium Falciparum
b. Plasmodium Malaria
c. Plasmodium Ovale
d. Plasmodium Vivax
e. All of the above
44. Leukocyte responsible for response to parasitic and allergic infection:
a. Lymphocyte
b. Neutrophil
c. Monocytes
d. Basophile
e. Eosinophil
45. With Romano sky stain, 2-5 lobes and give violet or pinkish granules:
a. Neutrophil
b. Eosinophil
c. Basophile
d. Monocytes
46. Lymphocyte is elevated in:
a. Viral infection
b. Acute bacterial infection
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Megaloblastic anemia
e. Non of the above
47. Thrombin time measure:
a. Convert fibrinogen to fibrin with activate of thrombin
48. In presence of clotting defect one of this not measure:
a. Leukocyte count
49. Bleeding time test detect the abnormality in:
a. Defect in vessels and platelets
50. S hemoglobin is the same defect of thalassemia but the different is:
a. Long B chain
b. Glutamic acid on B chain is substituted with valine
c. Glutamic acid on a chain is substitutes with valine
51. Hormone that cause replication of RBC:
a. Erythropoietin
52. Which of White blood cell give immunoglobulin?
a. Lymphocyte
b. Neutrophil
c. Basophile
d. Monocytes
e. Eosinophil
53. .Neutrophil is a common White blood cell present in blood and the percentage of presence is:
a. 90%
b. 15%
c. 75%
54. Normal range of erythrocyte
a. 4, 5- 6,5X 10^9
55. One of these cells the largest leukocyte cell:
a. Neutrophil
b. Basophil
c. Monocytes
d. Lymphocyte
e. Eosinophil
56. Malaria chizonts are present in?
a. Reticulo-endothelial *leukocyte
b. RBCs
57. Unidirectional movement of WBCs directly to its target is?
a. Sliding
b. Phagocytes
c. Chemo taxis
58. Malaria does not grow in?
a. EDTA blood
b. Heparin zed blood
c. Plasma
59. Hemophilia man married to normal woman the incidence of his children is?
a. Carrier male
b. Diseased female
c. Carrier female
60. IVY method of bleeding time
a. For vascular and platelets abnormalities (function)
61. Neutrophil
a. Most abundant in WBCs
62. HbA
a. (Adult haemoglobin ) for adult, dominant in adult
63. HbF
a. (Infant heamoglobin) fetal haemoglobin
64. Neutrophil
a. Firstly increased in bacterial infections
65. Prolonged application of tourniquet
a. Venous stasis → increased calcium level
66. Best time for collection of blood for malaria:-
a. Before and after paroxsym
b. Shortly after paroxsym
c. Later paroxsym
d. Just before paroxsym
67. In folic acid deficiency what happens to rbcs:-
a. Enlarged RBCs (Megaloblastic anemia) = Macrocytic
b. Crenated RBCs
c. Haemolyzed RBCs
68. In iron deficiency anaemia :
a. RBCs are smaller than normal = Microcytic
69. The malarial sporozoite in man invades:-
a. White blood cells
b. RBCs
c. Reticulo-endothelial cells
d. All of the above
70. The defect of thalassemia occurs in:
a. Cycle of heme
b. Glubin chain
71. All Cells Are Nucleated EXCEPT:-
a. LYMPH
b. MONOCYTES
c. RBCs
d. NEUTROPHIL
72. Romanowsky stain consists of:
a. Eosin + Alkaline methylene blue
b. Eosin only
c. Methylene blue only
d. Indian Ink
Bio-Chemistry
73. One is not correctly paired:
a. α- cells→ glucagon
b. β- cells → insulin
c. Parathyroid → calcium
d. Corpus luteum → Progesterone
e. Estrogen → seminiferous tubules
74. In case of obstructive jaundice one is commonly not found:
a. Total bilirubin is elevated
b. High bilirubin in urine
c. Direct bilirubin is within the normal
d. Dark color of urine
e. Clay color of stool
75. In case of Hemolytic jaundice one is not likely to be found:
a. Total bilirubin is elevated
b. High bilirubin in urine
c. No change in color of urine
d. Direct bilirubin is within the normal
e. Normal color of stool
76. One is not true about acid:
a. Proton donor
b. Turn litmus paper to blue
c. Sour taste
d. React with alkaline to give water and salt
e. Non of the above
77. Pentose phosphate metabolism cycle is important to the cell because it give:
a. Acetyl CoA
b. ADP
c. ATP
d. NADH
e. NADPH
78. Hydrolysis of sucrose result:
a. Only glucose
b. Galactose
c. Fructose + glucose
d. Glucose + Glucose
e. Maltose + Glucose
79. Consider ketose:
a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Mannose
80. Presence one from this substance in urine detect abnormal condition;
a. Calcium
b. Phosphates
c. Glucose
d. Urates
81. In cardiac infraction one of the measurements is not benefited:
a. Creatinine
82. One of the following has highest conc. Of cholesterol:
a. Chylomicron
b. LDL
c. HDL
d. VLDL
e. Apolipoprtein
83. Hyper secretion of insulin cause:
a. Hypoglycemia
84. Hyperglycemia hormone
a. Glucagon
85. Pyrimidin base:
a. Adenine
b. Guanine
c. Thymine
d. Uric acid
e. Urea
86. One use for measure abnormality in kidney:
a. Creatinine
87. Does not stimulate with slight hemolysis:
a. Cholesterol
88. One is stimulate on serum calcium level:
a. Prolonged application of tourniquet on arm
89. Glycolysis done in:
a. Nucleus
b. Endoplasmic reticulum
c. Mitochondrion
d. Cytoplasm
e. Non of the above
90. One of the above not present in Diabetic mellitus coma:
a. Hyperglycemia
b. Hypercholesterolemia
c. High number of ketene in urine
d. Non of the above
91. In which substance give blood glucose when hydrolysis:
a. Muscle glycogen
b. Liver glycogen
c. Heart glycogen
d. Unsaturated fat
e. Triglyceride
92. Urea is final product of catabolism of:
a. Amino acid
b. Triglyceride
c. Cholesterol
d. Polysaccharide
93. Alkaline phosphates is the important enzyme to detect function in :
a. Liver
b. Bone
c. Liver and bone
d. Non of the above
94. One of the following anticoagulant used for blood glucose:
a. EDTA
b. Heparin
c. Sodium oxalate
d. Florida Oxalate
e. Sodium citrate
95. AST important enzyme to detect abnormality in:
a. Liver disease
b. Heart disease
c. Liver and heart disease
d. Non of the above
96. The diabetic patient is going to comma when blood glucose is?
a. 120 mg/dl
b. 160 mg/dl
c. Less than 50mg/dl
97. Amylase value is high in the following disease?
a. Salivary glands
b. Pancreas diseases
c. All of the previous
98. One jaundice patient has yellow skin, his billrubin is:
a. 2.5mg/dl
b. 1.2mg/dl
c. 5.0mg/dl
99. Acute diabetic patient has?
a. Blood sugar more than 150mg/dl
b. Blood sugar more than 180mg/dl
c. Glucose & Acetone in urine
100. Diabetic patient has one of the following symptoms?
a. Acidosis
b. Alkalosis
c. Dryness
101. Insulin is regulating blood sugar by?
a. Increase the influx of glucose into cells
b. Activate glycogensis
c. All the previous
102. To check the intestinal efficacy the following test is done?
a. Pepsin
b. Lipase
c. Stool fats
103. Comma of diabetic patient shows?
a. Glucose greater than 200mg/dl
b. Glucose less than 200mg/dl
c. Glucose greater than 500mg/dl
104. Bone matrix can also call?
a. Vascular tissue
b. Fibrous tissue
c. Osteon
105. Serum LDH is elevated in all the following except?
a. Skeletal disease
b. Cardiac/ hepatic diseases
c. Renal disease
106. Elevated Sodium & Chloride is seen in?
a. Shock
b. Diabetic acidosis
c. Severe dehydration
107. Which test is better to diagnose chronic bile duct?
a. Total bilirubin
b. S-GOT
c. ALP
108. With age the renal threshold for glucose?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Does not change
109. Causes of high serum bilirubin are?
a. Overload on liver
b. Haemolysis
c. All of the previous
110. One of the following enzymes is affected by hemolysis?
a. SGOT
b. SGPT
c. LDH
111. HbA1C of diabetic patient is important for?
a. He has to come fasting
b. Short term follow up
c. Long term follow up
112. For glucose tolerance test?
a. Collect 5 blood samples only
b. Collect 5 urine samples only
c. Collect 5 blood samples + 5 urine samples
113. One of the following heart enzymes is measured after 4-8hr of chest pain?
a. GOT
b. LDH
c. CPK
114. Light affects one of the following?
a. Glucose
b. Urea
c. Bilirubin
115. One of the following is specific diagnostic liver enzyme?
a. GOT
b. LDH
c. GPT
116. One of the following is important before anesthesia?
a. Alkaline phosphates
b. Acidic phosphates
c. Pseudocholine esterase
117. Acid phosphate is?
a. Heart enzyme
b. Liver enzyme
c. Prostatic enzyme
118. In Uric acid estimation?
a. Its affected by carbohydrate meal
b. No need for fasting
c. The patient has to come fasting
119. All of the following are affected by meal except?
a. Glucose
b. Albumin
c. Creatinine
120. Na+ is the main?
a. Intra cellular anion
b. Intra cellular cation ----- (K)
c. Extra cellular cation
121. One of the following electrolytes is affected by hemolisis?
a. Ca
b. Mg
c. K
122. The best kidney function test?
a. Urea
b. Total protein
c. Creatinine clearance
123. For GTT in adults the dose of glucose is?
a. 50gram
b. 100gram
c. 75gram
124. For GTT in children the dose of glucose is?
a. 30mg
b. 15gram
c. 30gram
125. Random blood glucose gives an idea?
a. To justify blood glucose
b. Fasting patient
c. Blood glucose in urgent cases
126. Exogenous triglyceride is carried on?
a. VLDL
b. HDL
c. Chylomicron
127. Endogenous triglyceride is carried on?
a. LDL
b. HDL
c. VLDL
128. Harmful cholesterol is carried on?
a. HDL
b. VLDL
c. LDL
129. Useful cholesterol is carried on?
a. Chylomicron
b. LDL
c. HDL
130. For lipid investigation patient has to fast?
a. 4-6hr
b. 6-8hr
c. 12-14hr
131. Test Used To Diagnose Obstructive Bile Duct
a. Bilirubin
b. Biliverdin
c. Urobilinogen
d. None of the above
132. Which of the following is protected from light :-
a. Bilirubin
b. Cholesterol
c. Total protein (TP.)
d. Bun (blood urea nitrogen)
133. All of the following can assess the liver function except :-
a. AST
b. ALT
c. ALP
d. Creatinine
134. Purine Associated With
a. ADENINE
b. GUANINE
c. URIC ACID
d. RNA
Microbiology
135. Bacteria can cause pathogenesis to human by:
a. Capsullar
b. Secret enzymes
c. Endogenous toxins
d. Exogenous toxins
e. All of the above
136. Function of pili of the bacteria:
a. Attachment to the host tissue
b. Movement
c. Reproduction (multiplication)
d. Engulf of food
e. All of the above
137. Bacteria motile gram-rods:
a. Shigella
b. Bordetela pertusis
c. Pseudomonas aeruginoea
d. Yersenia pestis
138. Strict aerobe bacteria
a. Mycobacterium
139. One is always non motile gram –ve rods:
a. Haemophilus Influenza
b. Shigella
c. E.coli
d. Salmonella
e. Borditella Pertusis
140. One is motile gram –ve rods:
a. Haemophilus Influenza
b. Bacillus anthracis
c. Pseudomonas aerogenes
d. Vibrio cholerae
e. Yersinia Pestis
141. One is gram +ve oval (cocci):
a. Bacillus anthracis
b. Meningococci
c. Pneumococci
142. A child diagnosis show scarlet fever the cause is:
a. Streptococcus Pyogenes
b. Staphylococcus aureus
143. Xylose lysine Deoxycholate (XLD) is:
a. Selective media
b. Simple media
c. Differential media
d. Enriched media
e. Enrichment
144. One is not a Romanowsky stain:
a. Fields stain
b. Gram stain
c. Geimsa stain
d. Leishman stain
145. Best sterilization of Nutrient media done by:
a. Hot air oven
b. Autoclaving
146. Org. (bacteria) arranged in Chinese litters:
a. Corynebacteria Diphtheria
b. Bacillus anthraces
147. Confirmatory test of streptococcus pneumonia:
a. Catalase
b. Optochine disc
c. Coagulase
d. Bile insolubility
e. Bacitracin
148. Gram +ve cocci arranged in groups (clusters):
a. Streptococci
b. Staphylococci
149. One is always oxidase +ve
a. Haemophilus Influenza
b. Pseudomonas aurogenase
150. Gram-v bacteria color:
a. Dark purple
b. Pale to dark red
c. Orange
151. Bacteria need dark field to detect
a. T.pallidium (Syphilis)
152. Citrate test assis:
a. Mycobacterias
b. Staph
c. Strept
d. Colistridia sp
153. Nutrient agar:
a. Basic media
154. Disease caused by Pyogen stereptococcus:
a. Scarlet fever
156. Org cause bloody in stool:
a. Shigella sp.
157. Z.N stain use for diagnose:
a. Mycobacterium
158. Media use for differentiate between L.F and N.L.F:
a. Maconky media
159. Use for clean slide:
a. Ethyl alcohol
b. Methyl alcohol
160. The following is ingredient of culture medium:
a. Meat extract
b. Minral salts
c. Agar
d. Peptone
e. Non of the above
f. All of the above
161. The most source of ATP in cell is:
a. Mitochondria
b. Cytoplasm
c. Nucleus
d. Cell wall
162. H Ag present in:
a. Pilli
b. Capsule
c. Flagella
d. Cell membrane
163. Selective and Differential medium of entero pathogen is:
a. Chocolate agar
b. Blood agar
c. DCA medium
d. Meat extract agar
e. Non of the above
164. One of these is prokaryotic cell:
a. Fungi
b. Bacteria
c. Entameba histolytica
d. All of the above
e. Non of the above
165. One of these org gram + ve cocci arranged in pairs:
a. Staphylococci
b. Streptococci
c. Meningococci
d. Entrococci
166. Substance used in catalyses reaction:
a. H2O2
167. The best sample for the culture of children paralysis virus is?
a. Anal swab
b. Blood culture
c. Stool culture
168. All of the following is true for salmonella except?
a. Motile
b. Produces H2S
c. Oxidase positive
169. The best media for urine culture is?
a. Blood agar
b. Chocolate agar
c. CLED agar
170. The sterilization of autoclave is?
a. 85c for 30min
b. 150c for 30min
c. 121c for 15min
171. Shigella soni colored in maconkey & EMB?
a. Colorless
b. Red
c. Pink
172. All the following bacteria are interobacter except?
a. E.coli
b. Proteus
c. Non of the previous
173. All the following parameters affecting gram staining except?
a. Use H2SO4
b. Add absolute alcohol after washing
c. Delaying the dryness of the slide
174. Blood sample is used to diagnose?
a. C.tetani
b. C.diphteria
c. Non from them
175. Serious that causes food poisoning?
a. Staph albus
b. Salmonella typhi
c. Salmonella enteritidis
176. Which of the following causes UTI & INDOL positive?
a. Klebsiella
b. Staphylococci
c. E.coli
177. One of the following is capsulated bacteria?
a. Streptococci
b. E.coli
c. Klebsiella Pneumonia
178. Which of the following culture media is suitable for semi quantitative bacterial count in urine samples?
a. Mc Conkey agar
b. Blood agar
c. XLD medium
d. Mannitol salt agar
e. CLED medium
179. The following organisms are lactose fomenters except
a. E. coli
b. Enterobacter cloacae
c. Shigella sonnei
d. Proteus spp.
180. All is true about Enterobacteriaceae except:-
a. They are …… hemolytic and sorbitol
b. Ferments Mannitol
c. Grow in Methylene blue medium
d. Inhibited growth with 6.5 % NaCl and/or at temperature
181. All are true of campylobacter jejuni or which of the following statements about campylobacter is false:-
a. Gram negative curved bacilli
b. Slow growth
c. Grow on XLD medium
d. Arranged in pairs
182. Beta hemolysis is enhanced when group B Streptococci is streaked at an angle in blood agar plate with :
a. Streptococci
b. Staph aureus
c. Micrococcus
d. Streptococcus epiedermidis
e. Corynebacterim diphteriae
183. All statements are true about proteus mirabilis and Proteus vulgaris except:-
Oxidase negative & liquefies gelatin
a. Exhibits swarming on BAP and Mc Conkey's agar
b. Urease positive
c. KCN and N2S positive
d. Positive to INDOLE test
184. Klebsiella pneumonia
a. Capsulated
185. Some organisms are to said to be pathogenic if they are containing the following features:-
a. Coagulase
b. Catalase
c. Sugar
d. Antibodies
186. Sterilization is best done by
a. 121c 15 PSI for 15-20 minutes
187. Organism Soluble In Bile:-
a. Staph
b. Streptococci
c. Pneumococci (streptococcus pneumonia)
d. Haemophilous influenzae
188. Thayer-martin media is the choice for the isolation of the following organism : -
a. Pseudomonas Aeroginosa
b. Haemophilus influenzae
c. Nisseria gonorrhoea
189. Confirmatory test for Strept. Pneumoniae:-
a. Optochin sensitivity disc
b. Bacitracin disc sensitivity
c. Bile solubility
d. Catalase test
190. Specimen suitable for microfilaria
a. TISSUE
b. BLOOD
c. FLUID
191. Which of the following organisms is an anaerobic bacterium:-
a. Clostiridium spp.
b. Haemophilus
c. E. Coli
d. Yersinia enterocolitica
192. Nutrient agar is:-
a. Selective media
b. Differential media
c. Special media
d. Basic medium
193. The Following Organisms Are Encapsulated Except:-
a. Pseudomonas aeroginosa
b. E. Coli
c. Haemophilous influenzae
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
194. Vi Ag is seen in:-
a. CAPSULE
b. PILI
c. SPORE
d. FLAGELLA
195. All are true about enterococci except :- (Strept. Faecalis)
a. Have carbohydrate antigen of group d streptococci
b. Positive aesculin hydrolysis
c. Grow in the presence of bile salts
d. Do not grow in the presence of 6.5 % Nacl nor at 45 c
196. Significant bacteruria , puria , and alkaline urine probably indicate urinary tract infection due to::
a. Staphylococcus epidermidis
b. E. Coli
c. Proteus vulgaris
d. Pseudomonas aerginosa
e. Enterococcus Faecalis
197. Streptococci responsible for the majority of human infections are:-
a. Group A
b. Beta-haemolytic streptococci
c. Bacitracin-s and camp (-)
d. All of these
e. None of these
198. To differentiate between nisseria gonorrhoea and nisseria meningitidis :
a. Fermentation of dextrose and lactose
b. Fermentation of dextrose and maltose
c. Fermentation of maltose and lactose
d. Fermentation of maltose and sucrose
199. Blood culture is indicated in the following bacterial diseases except
a. Meningitis
b. Endocarditis
c. Gastroenteritis
d. Pyelonephritis
e. Pneumonia
200. Which of the following statements about campylobacter jejuni is false
a. Gram negative curved bacilli
b. Arranged in pairs (see-gull)
c. Slow growth
d. Grows on XLD medium
e. Incubation temperature at 42 c
201. The invasiveness of streptococcus pneumoniae is due to the production of:
a. Haemolsins
b. Endotoxins
c. Extotoxins
d. Polysaccharide capsule
202. Agar is characterized by all the following except?
a. Freezing point is 42c & melting point is 100c
b. Nutritive
c. Un-nutritive
Paracytology
203. Infective stage of Entrobius Vermicularis is:
a. Larva
b. Cercaria
c. Egg
d. Cyst
e. Metacercaria
204. The definitive host is an animal:
a. Entamoeba histolitica
b. Toxoplasma Gondii
c. Trypanosoma cruzi
d. E.coli
e. Giardia lamblia
205. Parasite can cause fetal cerebral infection:
a. Taenia
b. Toxoplasma gondii
206. Intracellular parasite:
a. E.coli
b. Toxoplasma gondii
c. Giaradia lamblia
d. Typanosoma cruzi
e. Trichomonas vaginalis
207. Non motile protozoa:
a. E.coli
b. Entamoeba Histolytica
c. Trypanosoma cruzi
d. Giardia lamblia
e. Trichomonas vaginalis
208. Identification of Leishmania parasite
a. Lymph node aspirate.
209. Infective stage of Taenia:
a. Larva
b. Cercaria
c. Embrocated egg
d. Cyst
e. Metacercaria
210. Autoinfection of human can caused in case of:
a. Entrobius Vermicularis
b. Taenia Sp.
c. Anclystoma Dudenal
d. Ascaris Lumbercoidis
211. Iodine stain of Entamoeba cyst used to detect (diagnose):
a. Chromatoidal bars
b. Cell wall
c. Nuclei
212. Diagnostic stage of Ascaris lumbericoidis:
a. Finding of a typical fertilized egg in stool
213. Parasite can be detected in vaginal and urethral discharge:
a. Trichomonas Vaginalis
214. Blood of Microfilaria infection diagnostic with:
a. Wuchereria bancrofti
215. Oocyst benefited to diagnose:
a. E.histolytica
b. E.coli
c. Toxoplasma gondii
d. Giaradia lamblia
e. Typanosoma cruzi
216. Cutaneous Leishmanias is transmitted by:
a. Phlebotomus sand fly
217. Shistosoma hematobium diagnosis:
a. Egg in urine with terminal spine
218. One of these organism multiply intracellular parasite:
a. Gardia lamblia
b. Entameba histolytica
c. E. coli
d. Tryponosoma Cruzi
e. Toxoplasma gondii
219. Infective stage of Ascaris lumbricodes:
a. Larva
b. Cercaria
c. Egg
d. Cyst
e. Metacercaria
220. The worm that causes blood in urine?
a. Ascaris
b. Fasciola
c. Schistosoma haematobium
221. Generally diagnosed by recovery & identification of typical larva in stool?
a. Hook worms
b. T.Trichura
c. S.Stercoralis
222. Which of the following is not laying eggs in small intestine?
a. Hook worm
b. T.Saginata
c. Pin worm
223. Polio myeletis is transmitted through?
a. Skin
b. Respiration
c. Feco-oral
224. A parasite which does not deposit eggs in the intestine
a. E. vermicularis (Pin Worm)
b. A. duodenale
c. A. lumbricoides
d. T.saginata
e. T. spiralis
225. The causative parasite of Egyptian Bilharisiasis
a. Trichomonas Vaginalis
b. Schitosoma haematobium
c. Schitosoma japonicum
d. Schitosoma mansoni
e. All of the above
226. Best for identification of parasite if you cannot see it in stool (Negative in stool)
a. Concentration Technique
227. Identification of fertilized eggs in feces
a. Ascaris Lumbricoides
228. Sugar cannot be detected in urine using copper reduction test
a. Fructose
b. Galactose
c. Arabinose
d. Sucrose
229. The infective stage of Ancylostoma Duodenale is:-
a. Eggs in stool
b. Larva in stool
c. Larva in tissue
d. Cysticercous bovis
230. What practical Cardiolipin is applicable in laboratory work?
a. FTA
b. VDRL & RPR
c. RPR ONLY
d. VDRL ONLY
231. The intermediate host of Toxoplasma is:-
a. Dog
b. Cat
c. Mouse
d. All
e. None
232. A semen specimen, contain sugar source of the spermatozoa energy is:
a. Glucose
b. Mannose
c. Glactose
d. Fructose
e. Sucrose
233. To check the intestinal efficacy the following test is done?
a. Pepsin
b. Lipase
c. Stool fats
Immunology
234. The smallest molecular weight Ig is:
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgD
d. IgE
e. IgA
235. B-lymphocyte after attack foreign bodies, called
a. Plasma cell
236. One of the immunoglobulin present in trace amount in serum :
a. IgG
b. IgE
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgA
237. Immunoglobulin is?
a. B globulin
b. Alfa globulin
c. Gamma globulin
238. Ig (Immunoglobulin) Increased In Case Of Parasitic Infection & Allergy
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgE
239. ? a. IgM (HEAVIER) 1St
b. IgA
c. IgE
240. Ig can cause HDN:-
a. IgM
b. IgA
c. IgE
d. IgG
241. Ig not part of acquired immunity:-
a. IgM
b. IgA
c. IgE
d. IgG
242. One of the immunoglobulin present in trace amount in serum:
a. IgG
b. IgE
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgA
ELISA
243. A standard micro plates in ELISA test has?
a. 98 wells
b. 94 wells
c. 96 wells
244. The enzyme in ELISA testing is present in the?
a. Buffer
b. Micro plate
c. Conjugate
245. Antigen antibody complex are?
a. Weakly bound
b. No bounds
c. Strongly bound
246. Washing must be done in all heterogeneous ELISA technique because?
a. Increase the specificity
b. Increase the sensitivity
c. It removes the excess binding
247. The label in ELISA tests is?
a. Radio active substance
b. Antibody
c. Enzyme
248. Method used to detect hormone in the laboratory:
a. ELIZA
Blood Bank
249. Blood medium commonly used in blood bank:
a. Citrate Phosphate Dextrose adenine (CPD-A)
b. EDTA anticoagulant
c. Heparin anticoagulant
d. Saline alanin glucose maltose (SAGM)
250. Indirect anti-antibody test used to detect: (Indirect Combs Test)
a. Sensitized RBCs in patient blood
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. Sensitized antibody in patient serum
e. Non of the above
251. Sensitized Ab in serum detect by:
a. Indirect antiglublin test
252. Direct anti-antibody test used to detect: (Direct Combs Test)
a. Sensitized RBCs in patient blood
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. Sensitized antibody in patient serum
e. Non of the above
253. Anti-Human Immunoglubin is:
a. Coombs reagent
b. Anti-Ab
c. IgG
d. All of the above
e. Non of the above
254. Rh-ve patient means he does not have:
a. E antigen
b. D antigen
c. B antigen
d. C antigen
e. Non of the above
255. Life span of red blood cells in the circulation (body):
a. 80 days
b. 120 day
c. 130 day
d. 20 day
e. 7 days
256. Use O cell tube on lab for:
a. As control
b. To detect Ag
c. To detect Ab
257. All cause false –v ABO blood grouping except
a. Too short incubation
258. Store FFPs at -80◌ْc:
a. 1year
b. 1month
c. 4 year
d. 2 year
e. 6year
259. In Rh-v person, this Ag not found:
a. D- Antigen
260. In O+v person
a. No presence of Ag
b. No presence of Ab
261. CPD_A anticoagulant used to store blood for:
a. 35 days
b. 45 days
c. 5 days
d. 15 days
e. Non of the above
262. In Anti human globulin test do wash of RBC because all serum contain:
a. Albumin
b. a_glubulin
c. b_ globulin
d. Fibrinogen
e. Immunoglobulin
263. Reason of false positive ABO in compatibility:
a. Cold agglutination
264. In O blood group the Ab in serum is:
a. Anti A1B
b. Anti A
c. Anti B
d. Non of the above
e. All of the above
265. Blood donor selection in KSA are all of the following except?
a. Hb% 12.5-16
b. Free from syphilis
c. One year after delivery
266. Blood transfusion can transmit?
a. HIV
b. CMV
c. All of the previous
267. Causes false negative ABO incomparability/ cross matching:-
a. Deteriorated reagent
b. Not putting antisera
c. Under incubation
268. False positive ABO incompatibility/cross matching
a. Cold Agglutinin
269. Why do we have to wash red blood cells in cross matching?
a. To remove an excess antibody present in the sample
270. Antibody found in blood group Ab individuals:
a. ANTI-A
b. ANTI-AB
c. ANTI-B
271. To differentiate anti i from anti I
a. A1 CELLS
b. A2 CELLS
c. Cord Cells
d. None of the above
272. Cross-Match in (Major X-Matching)
a. Donor Cells + Patient Serum
Hormone
273. Function of Thyroxin is:
a. Increase Oogenesis
b. Stimulate contraction of uterus
c. Increase basal metabolic
274. Increase in Thyroxin Stimulating Hormone (TSH) causes:
a. Cushing disease
b. Gigantism
c. Exophthalamic goiter
d. Hypoglycemia
275. Function of Estrogen:
a. Increase Oogenesis
b. Stimulate contraction of uterus
c. Increase basal metabolic
276. Increase in growth hormone causes:
a. Cushing disease
b. Gigantism
c. Exophthalamic goiter
d. Hypoglycemia
277. Immunoglobulin pregnancy test related to:
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. Human chorionic Gonadotropin
278. Target of Prolactin in female:
a. Ovary
b. Mammary glands
279. Hypersecretion of cortisol cuase:
a. Cushing disease
280. Hyperparathyroidism hormone cause:
a. Elevated ca level
b. Decrease ca level
281. Regulation of calcium level in serum by:
a. Calcitonine hormone only
b. Parathyroid hormone only
c. Calcionine with parathyroid hormone
d. Vitamin D
e. PTH+Vitamin D+calcitonin
282. Oxytocine hormone function:
a. Increase Oogenesis
b. Stimulate contraction of uterus
c. Increase basal metabolic
283. Function of Cortisol:
a. Increase Oogenesis
b. Stimulate contraction of uterus
c. Increase basal metabolic
284. While using the pregnancy test we are measuring?
a. Total HCG
b. Beta HCG &LH
c. Beta HCG
285. ADH is secreted from?
a. Thyroid gland
b. Anterior pituitary
c. Posterior pituitary
Question and answer session for practices
286. The concentration of total bilirubin in the serum of normal adult ranges at.
a. 0.1 – 1 mg/dl
b. 0.1 – 1 ug/dl
c. 1 – 10 mg/dl
d. 10 – 20 mg/dl
e. 100 -110 mg/dl
287. Laboratory tests of hepatic function include:
a. Serum bilirubin
b. Urine bilirubin
c. Excretory function test
d. All of the above
288. Marked elevations in serum amylase levels are seen in:
a. Bone disease
b. Acute pancreatitis
c. Salivary gland lesions
d. Liver disease
e. B and C
289. Glycogen, the storage form of carbohydrates in the body is predominantly found in.
a. Liver tissue
b. Muscle tissue
c. Liver and muscle
d. Bone
e. B and D
290. The hormone insulin helps to maintain constant plasma glucose concentration by:
a. Allowing entry of glucose from plasma in to muscle and fat tissue
b. Moving glucose out of cells into the plasma
c. Inhibiting glycolysis
d. All the above mechanisms
e. Non of the above mechanisms
291. In case of uncontrolled sever diabetes mellitus, the following biochemical abnormalities appear:
a. Acidosis
b. Ketosis
c. Dehydration
d. Electrolyte imbalance
e. All of the above
292. Sever diabetes mellitus bring about which condition
a. Acidosis and Ketosis
b. Non of the above
c. Dehydration
d. Electrolyte imbalance
e. All of the above
293. In chemical or latent type diabetes:
a. The fasting blood sugur level exceeds 150 mg/dl.
b. Glucose and ketone bodies are found in the urine.
c. The 2-hour postprandial serum glucose level exceeds 180 mg/dl
d. The glucose tolerance test result is normal
e. Non of the above statements is correct
294. Which statement is true about chemical or latent diabetes?
a. FBS >150
b. Presence of acidosis and ketosis
c. 2HPP >180
d. OGTT is normal
e. Presence of sugur in urine
295. A technician working in the clinical chemistry lab must immediately report to his supervisor a plasma glucose level equal to:
a. 80 mg/dl
b. 70 mg/dl
c. 60 mg/dl
d. 50 mg/dl
e. 120 mg/dl
296. Test of intestinal function includes: / A test used to assess intestinal function:
a. Lactose tolerance test
b. D-xylose absorption test
c. Measurement of serum caroteniods
d. Fecal fat analysis
e. Non of the above
297. In spectrophotometeric determination, the amount of light of a specific wavelength absorbed by a colored solution is:
a. Directly proportional to the intensity of the color
b. Directly proportional to the concentration of solute in the solution
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
298. In spectrophotometeric, the amount of light absorbed is:
a. Directly proportional to the amount of light transmitted
b. Inversely proportional to the amount of solute
c. Directly proportional to the concentration of the analyte
d. Inversely proportional to the absorbance
e. Inversely proportional to the emitted color
299. The concentration of Sodium in normal serum is: / normal Sodium in adult
a. 136 – 145 mmol/l / 135 – 145 mmol/l
b. 136 – 145 mg/dl / 110 – 220 meq/l
c. 1.36 – 1.45 mmol/l /1.35 – 1.45 mmol/l
d. 1.36 – 1.45 mg/dl / 20 – 50 mg/dl
e. E. None of the above / None of the above
300. The best estimate of plasma osmolality is represented by:/ The Principal of body water osmolality is:
a. Plasma Na+ concentration / Na+ concentration
b. Plasma K+ Concentration / K+ concentration
c. Plasma HCO3 Concentration / HCO3- concentration
d. None of the above / CL- concentration
301. The most important buffer system present in blood is:
a. The hemoglobin buffer system
b. The phosphate buffer system
c. The bicarbonate/carbonic acid buffer system
d. The acetate/acetic acid buffer system
e. None of the above
302. Jaundice, a condition characterized by deposition of bilirubin in the sclera of the eyes and in the skin, becomes evident when the bilirubin serum level reaches a concentration of:
a. 1 mg/dl
b. 0.1 mg/dl
c. Exceeds 2.5 mg/dl
d. Exceeds 5 mg/dl
e. None of the above
303. In significant bacteriuria the cfu/ml urine is:
a. > 10^5 cfu/ml
b. < 10^5 cfu/ml
c. > 10^3 cfu/ml
d. < 10^3 cfu/ml
304. The test used to differentiate pathogenic staphylococci is:
a. Catalase
b. Oxidase
c. Coagulase
d. ASO test
305. Group A Streptococci are differentiated from other Beta-haemolytic streptococci by disc containing:
a. Neomycin
b. Optochin
c. Bacitracin
d. Novobiocin
306. For blood culture, the best anticoagulant is:
a. Citrate
b. Oxalate
c. Sodium polyanesthol sulphonate (SPS)
d. Heparin
307. The IMVIC reaction of E. coli are:
a. ++--
b. --++
c. +++-
d. ---+
308. On EMB or Mac Conkiy agar media, members of shigella-salmonella group produce small colonies which are:
a. Black
b. Green
c. Pink
d. Colorless
e. Yellow-brown
309. The best specimen for recovery of polio virus for culture is:
a. C S F
b. Blood clot or throat washing
c. Buffy coat
d. Feces
e. None of the above
310. The diagnostic stage for Giardia lamblia in stool is:
a. Cyst
b. Trophozite
c. Cyst and/or trophozite
d. All of the above
e. Non of the above
311. Man may acquire toxoplasma from:
a. Mice
b. Cats
c. Dogs
d. Pigs
312. All Leishmanial infections are transmitted by / Vector for Leismania infection
a. Tsetse fly/ Tsetse fly
b. Sand fly/ Sand fly
c. House fly/ House fly
d. Horse fly/ Anopheles mosquito
313. Dwarf tapeworm:
a. Taenia saginata
b. Hymenolepis nana
c. Taenia solium
d. Dipylidium caninum
314. Viruses resemble living thing; they:
a. Are motile
b. Are crystalline
c. Grow
d. Reproduce
315. Which of the following culture media is suitable for doing semi-quantitative bacterial count of urine specimens?
a. MacConkey’s agar
b. Blood agar
c. CLED medium
d. XLD medium
e. Mannitol salt agar
316. Quellung’s test is positive with the following organisms EXCEPT:
a. Streptococcus pneumonia
b. Haemophilus influenza
c. Klebseilla pneumonia
d. Corynebacterium diphtheria
317. Growth of vibrio cholera on TCBS medium produces:
a. Blue colonies
b. Yellow colonies
c. Green colonies
d. White colonies
318. The following organisms are lactose fermenters EXCEPT:
a. E1. colli
b. Enterobacter cloacae
c. Shigella sonnei
d. Proteus spp.
319. All are true for salmonella typhi EXCEPT:
a. Human is the main reservoir or carrier.
b. Possesses H & O antigen
c. Oxidase positive
d. Produces H2 S on TSI, XLD & HE media
e. Produces acid from glucose but no gas
320. All is true for salmonella EXCEPT
a. The main reservoir is human
b. Contains O and H antigen
c. Urease, KCN and phenylalanine negative
d. H2S positive with gas
e. Indole positive
321. The following are members of Enterobacteriaceae family EXCEP:
a. Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis
b. Serratia liquefaciens
c. Providencia alcalifaciens
d. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
e. Campylobacter fetus
322. Which of the followings statements about Campylobacter Jejuni is false?
a. Gram negative curved bacilli
b. Arranged in pairs (see-gull)
c. Slow growth
d. Grows on XLD medium
323. Direct gram-staining is routinely performed on the following specimens EXCEPT:
a. Pus, aspirated fluids and discharges
b. CSF
c. C. sputum
d. Urine
e. Stool
324. When using a X10 eye piece and the X10 objective of a bright field microscope, the total magnification is:
a. 10
b. 100
c. 1000
d. 10000
325. Which of the following microscopes would you use to examine a smear of bacteria stained by Gram stain?
a. Bright field microscope
b. Dark field microscope
c. Dissecting microscope
d. Fluorescent microscope
326. Which of the following microscopes would you use to examine a smear stained with a fluorochrose:
a. Bright field microscope
b. Dark field microscope
c. Polarizing microscope
d. Fluorescent microscope
327. The resolution of the bright field microscope is:
a. 2.0 um
b. 0.2 um
c. 0.02 um
d. 0.002 um
328. Bacteriological culture media are generally sterilized using:
a. The auto calve
b. The oven
c. Filtration
d. Bunsen burner
329. Serum can be sterilized using membrane filter of porosity / Bacterial sterilization of serum can be accomplished by filtration using a porosity of
a. 0.22 um/ 0.22 ù
b. 2.2 um/ 0.8 ù
c. 6 um/ 0.60 ù
d. 8 um/ 5.0 ù
330. The temperature-time cycle when using the autoclave to sterilize is:
a. 100 C /30 min
b. 121 C /30 min
c. 90 C /30 min
d. 100 C /15 min
331. Which of the following materials would you sterilize using the oven?
a. Culture media
b. Serum
c. Sand
d. Distilled water
332. The primary stain of the gram stain is:
a. Crystal violet
b. Safranin
c. Malachite green
d. Iodine
333. Which of the following reagents is not used in the gram staining technique?
a. Crystal violet
b. Safranin
c. Malachite green
d. Iodine
334. Which color do gram negative bacteria appear?
a. Blue
b. Green
c. Yellow
d. Red
335. Which objective of the microscope requires the use of immersion oil between the slide and the objective?
a. X10
b. X20
c. X40
d. X100
336. The solidifying agent in bacteriological culture media is:
a. Wax
b. Resin
c. Agar
d. Starch
337. Agar is used as a solidifying agent in bacterial culture medium at a concentration:
a. 10% - 11%
b. 8% - 9%
c. 1% - 2%
d. 1% - 3%
338. Which of the following is not true?
a. Agar is inert
b. Agar is nutritious
c. Agar solidifies at 42 C
d. Agar melts at 100 C
339. Bacteria which has an optimum temperature for growth at 60 C are termed:
a. Mesophilic
b. Zoophilic
c. Thermophilic
d. Halophilic
340. What organism that char. Sattelitism around the Staph. Aureus on blood agar:
a. H. influenza
b. H. dueriyi
c. C. tetani
d. None of the above
341. Parasite that has a chronatiodal bodies or the cigar shaped:
a. E. Histolytica
b. E. coli
c. Endolimax nana
d. Balantidium Cole
e. E. hartmani
342. Ingestion of RBC in a trophozeite:
a. E. histolytica
b. E. coli
c. Endolinax nana
343. Sprozoite in man invades:/ Sproziote of malaria invades man through the:
a. WBC / White Blood cell
b. RBC / Red blood cell
c. Reticuloendothelial / RES /Muscle tissue / All of the above
344. Egyptians Hematuria:
a. Fasciola Hepatiea
b. S. Hematobium
c. S. Japonicum
d. S. Mansoni
345. The causative parasite of Egyptian bilharzias:
a. Trichomonas Vaginalis
b. Schistosoma haematobium
c. Schistosoma japonicum
d. D. Schistosoma mansoni
e. All of the above
346. Enlarge RBC: / which malarial parasite cause enlargement of the RBC:
a. P. Vivax
b. P. Malaria
c. P. Falciparum
d. P. Ovale
347. In urinary infection the ff. are free in urine:
a. Hematuria
b. Nitritis are positive
c. Leukocytes
d. All of the above
348. The probable glucose level:
a. Below 25 – 30 mg/dl
b. 40 mg/dl
c. 60 mg/dl
d. Any of the above
349. In myocardial infection what enzyme are resp.
a. CK-MB
b. AST
c. ALT
d. CK - BB
350. In Antigen – Antibody reaction the panel should have such
a. 1 Neg. & 1 Positive control
b. 2 Neg. & 1 Positive control
c. 2 Neg. & 2 Positive control
d. 3 Neg. & 3 Positive control
351. Parasites that neither lay eggs nor:
a. T. trichiurea
b. Ascaris
c. Hookworm
d. Trichenilla
352. A parasite which does not deposit eggs in the intestine:
a. E. vermicularis
b. A. doudenale
c. A. lumbricoides
d. T. saginata
e. T. spiralis
353. Which of the following neither lays eggs nor deposits larvae in the intestinal canal:
a. Hook worm
b. Pin worm
c. Trichinella
d. Trichiuris
354. In blood transfusion the patients Red cells and donor plasma are req.
a. Minor cross matching
b. Major cross matching
355. What is the normal value of FBS if it is 100% venous blood?
a. 60-80 mg/dl
b. 100-120 mg/dl
c. 80-120 mg/dl
d. 200-210 mg/dl
356. In acute pancreatities what is the test to be determine:
a. Amylase
b. Lactate Dehydrogenises
c. AST
d. ALT
357. Other than Insulin what hormone that maintain the glucose level
a. Glucagon
b. Growth hormone
c. Somatostatin
358. Glomerular filtration Rate is indi. Of:
a. Measurement of Clearance of subs. That are freely filterable by the glomerular
b. Means of clearable of subs. That are freely filterable by the glomerular that secret by
tubules and is retainable
c. Any of above
d. All of the above
359. Increased Serum bilirubin:
a. Overloaded of Bilirubin in the liver
b. Dysfunction of hepatocellular
c. Esterification of conjugated
d. B & C
e. All of the above
360. Creatinine Determination:
a. Skeletal
b. Muscle
c. Heart
d. All of the above
361. The trophozoite which contains red blood cells in the cytoplasm belongs to this parasite:
a. Entamoeba hystolitica
b. Entamoeba gingivalis
c. Entamoeba coli
d. Iodamoeba butschlii
e. Non of the above
362. What is the best time to collect blood for malarial smear?
a. At the beginning or just when the paroxysm is about to start
b. Period before the paroxysm start
c. Period when the paroxysm starts
d. Period after the paroxysm
363. The technician should inform the physician immediately when the blood glucose level is:
a. 60 mg/dl
b. 50 mg/dl
c. 80 mg/dl
d. 110 mg/dl
e. 120 mg/dl
364. Which of the following is enrichment medium?
a. CLED
b. MAC
c. BAP
d. Chocolate Agar
e. Thiocynate broth
365. The only enrichment medium of following is:
a. Blood agar
b. Chocolate agar
c. Cystine lactose Electrolyte Deficient (CLED)
d. Selenite broth
e. Mac Conkey agar
366. Which of the following is an enriched medium?
a. Nutrient broth
b. Peptone water
c. Normal saline
d. Chocolate agar
367. Which of the following indicates a blood agar plate:
a. C. diphtheria
b. M. tuberculosis
c. B. pertussis
d. F. tularensis
e. Non of the above
368. All are member of the Family Enterobacteriaccae are EXCEPT:
a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b. Yersinia pestis
c. Pseudomonas aeroginosa
d. D. Shigella dysenteriae
e. Campylobacter jejni
369. To obtain an isotonic media, the Sodium Chloride content should be:
a. 0.85 g %
b. 0.085 g%
c. 8.5 g%
d. 6.5 g%
e. 0.50 g%
370. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is called acid fast because:
a. It is easily stained by Grams stain
b. Once stained, it cannot be removed by acid
c. It easily decolorizes after stain
d. It is very easy to stain
e. It is stained by an alkaline stain
371. All of the following is a test for liver function except:
a. Bilirubin in urine
b. Bilirubin in Serum
c. Excretory function test
d. Enzyme test
e. All of the above
372. Most of the pathogenic stains of streptococcus belong to group:
a. Viridan
b. Beta hemolytic
c. Alpha hemolytic
d. Group D
e. Micrococcaciae
373. Beta Hemolysis is enhanced when Group B Streptococcus in streaked at an angle in a blood agar plate with:
a. Streptococcus pneumonia
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Micrococcus
d. Staphylococcus epidermidids
e. C. diphtheria
374. All statements are true about Proteus mirabilis and Proteus vulgaris except:
a. Oxidase negative and liquefies gelatin
b. Exhibits swarming on BAP and Mackonkey agar
c. Ureas positive
d. KCN and H2S positive
e. Positive to Indole test
375. All are true about Enterococci except:
a. They are Gamma hemolytic on BAP
b. Ferments Mannitol and Sorbitol
c. Reduce litmus milk with acid and coagulation
d. Growth in Methyline Blue medium
e. Inhabited growth with 6.5 % NaCl and at temperature 60 C
376. All are true about Enterococci except:
a. Have carbohydrate antigen or group D streptococci
b. Positive esculine-hydrolysis and (+) pyr test
c. Grow in the presence of bile salts
d. Do not grow in presence of 6.5 % NaCl nor at 45 C
377. Blood culture may be indicated for:
a. Clostridium tetani
b. Corynebacterium diphtheria
c. Shigella dysinteriae
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
e. Non of the above
378. Streptococci responsible for the majority of human – infection are:
a. Group A
b. Beta – haemolytic
c. Bacitracin-S and CAMP (-)
d. All of these
e. None of these
379. The gonococcus and menigococcus can best be differentiated by their:
a. Fermentation of dextrose and maltose
b. Fermentation of maltose and lactose
c. Fermentation of maltose and sucrose
380. Identified by finding mainly the rhabditiform larvae in fresh stool:
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Enterobiu vermicularis
c. Strongyloides stercoralis
d. Trichinella spiralis
381. The determination of ASO titer is used in the laboratory diagnosis of:
a. Toxic shock syndrome
b. Scarlet fever
c. Streptococci pharyngitis and cellulites
d. Acute glomerulonephritis
e. Rheumatic fever
383. Significant bacteriuria, pyuria, and alkaline urine probably indicate urinary infection due to:
a. Staphylococcus epedermidis
b. E. coli
c. Proteus vulgaris
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
e. Enterococcus faecalis
384. Which of the following are prokaryotes?
a. Bacteria
b. Rickettesia
c. Fungi
d. Protozoa
e. Chlamydia
385. The organs of adhesion in bacteria are:
a. Flagella
b. Fimbriae
c. Microcapsule
d. Slim layer
386. The thickness of bacterial cell wall ranges between
a. 2-5 nm
b. 5-10 nm
c. 10-15 nm
d. 15-20 nm
387. Which contain more peptidoglycan
a. Gram positive bacilli
b. Gram negative bacilli
c. Chlamydia
d. Rickettsiae
388. Endotoxins are chemically:
a. Mucopeptides
b. Proteins
c. Lipopolysacharides
d. Polysacharides
389. Minimum time required for sterilization by moist heat at 136 C is
a. 2 hours
b. 1 hour
c. 45 minutes
d. 15 minutes
e. 3 minutes
390. Which of the following is biological indicator used to monitor steam sterilizers.
a. Pseudomonas aeruginasa
b. Bacillus stearothermophilus
c. Bacillus anthraces
d. Clostridium difficile
391. Bacterial genes are transferred by means of all following except:
a. Transformation
b. Transduction
c. Mutation
d. Conjugation
392. Te rate of decolonization is the fastest in Grams stain with
a. Acetone
b. Alcohol
c. Mixture of Acetone and Alcohol
d. Acetone plus iodine
393. Best method of staining bacterial capsule is:
a. India ink preparation
b. Grams stain
c. Leishman’s stain
d. Malachite green
394. Which of the following is not true about Nutrient agar?
a. It melts at about 95 C
b. It solidifies at about 34 C
c. It doesn’t inhibit the growth of bacteria
d. It adds nutritive value to the medium
395. All of the following are transport media except:
a. Ammies medium
b. Stuart’s medium
c. Carry Blair’s medium
d. Alkaline peptone water
396. The usual concentration of blood in the blood agar medium is:
a. 2%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 15%
397. The sources of Peptone include:
a. Heart muscle
b. Casein
c. Fibrin
d. Soya four
e. All of the above
398. The indicator in Mac Conkey agar is:
a. Neutral Red
b. Methyl Red
c. Phenol Red
d. Bromophenol Blue
399. For providing micro aerophilic atmosphere the preferred mixture is:
a. Nitrogen + Carbon dioxide
b. Hydrogen + Carbon dioxide
c. Oxygen + Carbon dioxide
d. None of the Above
400. All of the following are oxidase positive except:
a. Neisseria gonorrhea
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Salmonella typhi
d. Vibrio cholera
e. Brucella
401. Chemically the oxidase reagent is:
a. Hydrogen peroxide
b. Tetra methyl-P-phenylene – diamine
c. Tributyrim
d. None of the above
402. Which of the following produce urease:
a. Escherichia Coli
b. Proteus Vulgaris
c. Salmonella gallinarum
d. Streptococcus haemoliti
403. Selective medium used for the isolation of Staphylococcus aureus is:
a. 2% milk agar
b. 10% Sodium chloride broth
c. Thioglycollate broth
404. The most commonly tested virulence factor in staphylococci is:
a. Coagulase
b. Hyaluronidase
c. Fibrinolysin
d. Enterotoxin
405. Group B streptococci cause:
a. Neonatal meningitis
b. Endocarditis
c. Septic abortions
d. All above
406. All following species of Staphylococcus do not produce coagulase except
a. S. Capitis
b. S. hominis
c. S. intermmedius
d. S. haemolyticus
407. Haemophilus influenza cause:
a. Meningitis
b. Respiratory infections
c. Conjunctivitis
d. Otitis media
e. All of the above
408. All following produce oxidase except:
a. Haemophilus species
b. Gardnerella vaginalis
c. Eikenella corrodens
d. Chromobacterium species
409. Which of the following can grow on MacConkey agar?
a. Chromobaterium violaceum
b. Haemophilus parainfluenza
c. Gardnerella vaginalis
d. Eikenella corrodens
410. The colonies of Bordetella pertussis look like:
a. Proached egg
b. Mercury drops
c. Sliver paints
d. Draughtsman
411. The best method of sample collection for Bordetella pertussis:
a. Pernasal swab
b. Cough plate method
c. Post nasal swab
d. Throat swab
412. The best medium for the isolation of Bordetella pertussis is:
a. Chocolate agar
b. Bordet—Gangou medium
c. Diamidine-penicillin-flouride medium
d. Chocolate agar with bacitracin
413. Which of following is capable of growth at 22 C
a. Neisseria meningitides
b. Neisseria lactamica
c. Neisseria catarrhalis
d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
414. Neisseria meningitides utilizes:
a. Glucose and maltose
b. Maltose and sucrose
c. Sucrose and lactose
d. Glucose and lactose
415. Which of the following are true about Neisseria meningitides?
a. These are Gram negative diplococci
b. Oxidase positive
c. Require 5-10% of carbon dioxide for growth
d. All above
416. The chemotherapeutic agents contained in modified New York City (MNYC) medium are:
a. Amphotericin B
b. Linocomycin
c. Colistin
d. Trimethroprim
e. All of above
417. Which of the following are typical about morphology of Corynebacterium diphtheria?
a. Gram positive thin bacilli
b. Presence of metachromatic granule
c. Club shaped at the ends
d. Arranged at acute angles
e. All above
418. Morphological features of C. diphtheria are best developed on:
a. Blood agar
b. Blood tellurite agar
c. Loeffler serum slope
d. Chocolate agar
419. JK group of corynebacteria are universal sensitivity to:
a. Teracycline
b. Vancomycin
c. Erythromycin
d. All above
420. Which test is used to ascertain toxigenity of C. diphtheria?
a. Elek’s test
b. Dick test
c. Schick test
d. None of the above
421. A smear stained with Ziehl Neelsen stain should not be declared negative unless it has been examined for at least:
a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. 20 minutes
422. In Ziehl Neelsen staining used for M. leprae, the decolorizing agent used is:
a. 5% sulphuric acid
b. 10% sulphuric acid
c. 15% sulphuric acid
d. 20% sulphuric acid
423. Voges proskauer (VP) negative organism is:
a. Shigella
b. Klebsiella
c. Enterobacter
d. Serratia
424. Salmonella ‘O’ antigens are also share with:
a. Citrobacter
b. Escherichia coli
c. Shigella
d. Proteus
e. All above
425. Enrichment medium for Salmonella is:
a. Tetrathionate broth
b. Selenite F
c. Strontium chloride broth
d. Any of above
426. Determination of antibodies to Vi antigen in Widal test helps in diagnosis of:
a. Early stage of typhoid fever
b. Typhoid encephalopathy
c. Carrier state
d. Virulent form of typhoid fever
Without underline answering MCQs for your practice
427. ONPG test is positive in all the strains of:
a. S. Flexneri
b. S. boydii
c. S. sonnei
d. S. dysenteriae
428. IgM is
a. Acute Immunoglobulin
b. Immunoglobulin in allergic condition
c. ChronicImmunoglobulin
d. Alpha globulin
429. Intramuscular injection increases the activity of the following enzyme:
a. GPT
b. CPK
c. CK-MB
d. LDH
430. In blood Glucose estimation the following is required
a. Fasting blood glucose
b. Glycosylated Hb
c. PPBS
d. Fructoseamine
e. All of the above
431. Female anopheles transmits which disease:
a. Lishmanisasis
b. Filariasis
c. Trypanosoma
d. Malaria
432. Na, K and Cl are best measure?
a. Spectrophotometer
b. Flame photo meter
c. ELISA
d. RIA
433. Glucose -6- phosphate dehydrogenase is:
a. Cardiac enzyme
b. Pancreatic enzyme
c. AMP pathway enzyme
d. Prostatic enzyme
434. Estimation of G6PDH is a test
a. To diagnose hemolytic anemia
b. To diagnose myocardial infection
c. T diagnose pancreatic disease
435. Cardiac LDH can be substituted by one of the following
a. GOT
b. GPT
c. CPK
d. HBDH
436. One of the following is specific diagnostic enzyme
a. GGT
b. GOT
c. LDH
d. CPK
437. Alkaline Phosphatase is
a. Live enzyme
b. Placental enzyme
c. Bone enzyme
d. All of the above
e. Non of the above
438. One of the following is pancreatic enzyme:
a. CPK
b. Lipase
c. GOT
d. Acid phosphates
439. Vaginal discharge occurs with all except:
a. Gardenela
b. Chlamydia
c. Candida
d. Trichomonous Vaginalls
e. Gonorrhea
440. Trypnosoma move by
a. Pseudopodia
b. Cilia
c. Flagella
d. Non of the above
441. Giardia move by
a. Pseudopadia
b. Cilia
c. Flagella
d. None of the above
442. Entamoeba histolytica cyst is appear in which part of gastrointestinal tract:
a. Stomach
b. Small intestine
c. Large intestine
d. None of the above
443. The following parasite can see in the blood:
a. Malaria
b. Filaria
c. Trypanosoma
d. Lishmania
e. All of the above
444. One of the following is Gram positive bacilli:
a. Anthrax
b. Niesseriae
c. E. coli
d. None of the above
445. Sensitivity and specificity are:
a. Directly related
b. Reversely related
c. They men the same
d. Non of the above
446. A dichromatic analysis is carried to increase
a. Specificity
b. Sensitivity
c. Linearity
d. Non of the above
447. Serious orgasm that cause food poisoning:
a. Staph. Albus
b. Salmonella entreritidis
c. Clostridium spelica
d. Salmonella typhi
TIPS FOR EXAM
Ø Strong Urea’s Producers → (Proteus Species)
Ø Selective and Differential Medium For Enterobacter → DCA (Deoxycholate Citrate Agar)
Ø What Is The Function Of Thyroxine (T4) → (It Is Used In Metabolism)
Ø Chocolate Agar → (Cap) Is Best For Haemophilus Influenzae)
(Thayer Martin- For Nisseria Gonorrhoea) Prolactin
Ø Is Produced By → (Anterior Pituitary Gland)
Ø Target Organ Of Prolactin → (Mammary Gland)
Ø Estrogen Is Produced By → (Ovary)
Ø Causes Of Conjuctivitis Trachoma/ Causative Agent → (Chlamydia Trachomatis)
Ø Identification of Enterobius Vermicularis → (Recovery Of Eggs In Perianal Skin)
Ø Causes whopping Cough → (Bordetela Pertusis) (Border Gongour Medium) Albert
Ø Stain Is Good For → (Coryenbacterium Diphteria)
Ø Alkali burns → (wash with 10 % conc. Acetic acid)
Ø An Indicator Means → (Changes of Color / Ph Range)
Ø When It Becomes Red → (Acidic)
Ø When It Becomes Blue → (Alkaline)
Ø Gram + Bacteria on Gram Stain → (Colored Dark Purple)
Ø Iodine Stain for Entamoeba Histolytica → (For Identification of Chromatoidal Bodies)
Ø Medium for Mycobacterium Tuberculosis Tb → (Lowenstein Jensen Medium LJ)
Ø Slight Haemolysis Cause → (Increased K Level)
Ø Visceral Leishmaniasis Caused By (Leishmania Donovan) → (Kala Zar)
Ø PTT detects → (intrinsic factor abnormalities).
Ø Prothrombine Time Detects → (Extrinsic Factor Abnormalties )
Ø Found in hyperglycemic coma → (ketones in urine).
Ø Citrate Test Differentiates → (Gram Negative Enterobacteriaceae)
Example salmonella is citrate +
Ø Indirect antiglobulin test → (Detect Antibody/ Antibody Screening Of Sensitizing Patient's Rbcs)
Ø Intermediate host of Leishmania species- → (Phlebotomus sand fly)
Ø Intermediate Host Of Trypanosoma → (Tsetse Fly)
Ø Identification of malarial parasites & RBCs morphology → (thin smear)
Ø Rh negative patients → (has no D antigen)
Ø Storage form of glucose → (Glycogen)
Ø Prevent atherosclerosis → (HDL Cholesterol)
Ø Albert stain → (Best for Corynebacterium diphteriae)
Ø Best for Sterilizing Media → (Autoclave)
Ø Oxidase + → (Pseudomonas Aeroginosa)
Ø Function of Cortisol → (Metabolsim)
Ø Best Fixative for Blood Film → (Ethyl Alcohol)
Ø Best Fixative for Thin Smear → (Ethyl Alcohol)
Ø Causes Oriental Scar → (Leishmania (Cutaneous))
Ø Normal Rbcs Count For Male → (4.5 - 6.5)
Ø Normal Glucose Level → (70 - 140 (Random))
Ø H Antigen → (Flagellar Antigen)
Ø Causes Scarlet Fever → (Streptococcus Pyogene)
Ø Causes Scalded Skin Syndrome → (Staph Aureus)
Ø Ziehl Nelson stain is used for → (Mycobacterium sp).
Ø Cellular / Cell Immunity → (T-Lymphocyte/Lymphocytes)
Ø Monocyte → (Also Macrophage)
Ø Optochin test is used to → (Differentiate between strept. Pneumonia from Strep. Viridans)
Ø Chinese letter like bacteria → (Corynebacterium diphteriae)
Ø AST/SGOT → (Best For Diagnosing Both Liver damage & myocardial infarction)
Ø ALT/SGPT → (Increase only in liver damage, not in myocardial infarction (MI)
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